1. The Supreme Court recently ruled that declarations of citizenship are not sustainable if the procedure adopted is:
A. Time-consuming
B. Mechanical and devoid of application of mind
C. Conducted by a High Court
D. Based on documentary evidence
Answer: B. Mechanical and devoid of application of mind
Explanation: The Supreme Court set aside 27 Gauhati High Court judgments relating to alleged foreigners and held that citizenship cannot be denied through a mechanical process. The Court emphasized that decisions affecting citizenship must follow a fair, lawful procedure with due application of mind and principles of natural justice.
The case involved appeals against orders of the Foreigners’ Tribunals in Assam. These tribunals determine whether a person is an Indian citizen or an illegal foreigner under the Foreigners Act.
2. Retail inflation, measured by the Consumer Price Index (CPI), rose to what level in June 2026?
A. 3.2%
B. 3.8%
C. 4.4%
D. 5.5%
Answer: C. 4.4%
Explanation: India’s retail inflation increased to 4.4% in June 2026, crossing the Reserve Bank of India’s medium-term target of 4%. The rise was mainly driven by food inflation, particularly vegetables and protein-rich food items.
The Consumer Price Index (CPI) is the principal measure of retail inflation in India. The RBI uses CPI while formulating monetary policy, with an inflation target of 4% ± 2%.
3. The Supreme Court recently stayed the implementation of an order of which High Court relating to cow slaughter?
A. Allahabad High Court
B. Karnataka High Court
C. Madras High Court
D. Bombay High Court
Answer: C. Madras High Court
Explanation: The Supreme Court stayed the Madras High Court’s directions regarding enforcement of rules on slaughterhouses and cow slaughter in Tamil Nadu while hearing petitions challenging the order.
4. Which constitutional principle did the Supreme Court emphasize while deciding the citizenship case?
A. Doctrine of Basic Structure
B. Rule of Law and Principles of Natural Justice
C. Doctrine of Eclipse
D. Doctrine of Colourable Legislation
Answer: B. Rule of Law and Principles of Natural Justice
Explanation: The Court observed that deprivation of citizenship has grave civil consequences and therefore every person must receive a fair hearing, adequate opportunity, and a reasoned decision consistent with the principles of natural justice.
5. The Supreme Court recently agreed to list all pleas challenging the High Court’s decision in the Bhojshala dispute. The Bhojshala complex is located in which State?
A. Uttar Pradesh
B. Madhya Pradesh
C. Rajasthan
D. Gujarat
Answer: B. Madhya Pradesh
Explanation: The Supreme Court agreed to hear petitions challenging the Madhya Pradesh High Court’s decision regarding the Bhojshala-Kamal Maula Mosque complex in Dhar, Madhya Pradesh. The site is claimed by both Hindus and Muslims and has been the subject of a long-standing legal dispute.
The Bhojshala complex is located in Dhar district of Madhya Pradesh. It is an Archaeological Survey of India (ASI)-protected monument and has historical as well as religious significance.
The Bhojshala complex is a protected monument under the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI). ASI is responsible for the conservation and maintenance of nationally protected monuments and archaeological sites in India.
6. The Right to Information Act, 2005 primarily aims to:
A. Regulate digital media platforms
B. Ensure transparency and accountability in public authorities
C. Conduct elections fairly
D. Protect whistle-blowers
Answer: B. Ensure transparency and accountability in public authorities
Explanation: The RTI Act, 2005 empowers citizens to seek information from public authorities, thereby promoting transparency, accountability, and participatory governance. The Act requires information to be provided within prescribed time limits.
The National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR) is a statutory body established under the Commissions for Protection of Child Rights Act, 2005. It safeguards and promotes the rights of children in India.
7. The Jnanpith Award, recently conferred on Tamil poet Vairamuthu, is primarily given for excellence in:
A. Indian Classical Music
B. Indian Literature
C. Indian Theatre
D. Indian Cinema
Answer: B. Indian Literature
Explanation: The Jnanpith Award is India’s highest literary honour. It is awarded annually to an Indian author for outstanding contribution to literature in any language listed in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution and English.
The Jnanpith Award is presented by Bharatiya Jnanpith, a literary and research organization established in 1944. The award recognizes lifetime contribution to Indian literature.
8. Under which Article of the Constitution did the Karnataka Governor seek an explanation before suspending the Karnataka Public Service Commission (KPSC) Chairman?
A. Article 315
B. Article 316(1)
C. Article 317
D. Article 324
Answer: C. Article 317
Explanation: Article 317 of the Constitution deals with the removal and suspension of the Chairman or members of a State Public Service Commission. The Governor may suspend a member while a reference is made to the Supreme Court for an inquiry.
9. Which constitutional authority conducts the inquiry for the removal of the Chairman or a member of a State Public Service Commission under Article 317?
A. High Court
B. Election Commission of India
C. Supreme Court of India
D. Union Public Service Commission
Answer: C. Supreme Court of India
Explanation: Under Article 317, the President may remove the Chairman or a member of a State Public Service Commission only after the Supreme Court, on reference, reports that the person ought to be removed on grounds of misbehaviour.
10. A recent study found that rainfall has the strongest environmental influence on elephant movement in which mountain range?
A. Aravalli Hills
B. Satpura Range
C. Western Ghats
D. Eastern Ghats
Answer: C. Western Ghats
Explanation: A study by the Centre for Wildlife Studies (CWS) found that rainfall is the strongest environmental factor influencing elephant movement in the southern Western Ghats across Karnataka and Kerala. The study analyzed long-term elephant movement data.
11. According to the recent Centre for Wildlife Studies (CWS) research, the study on elephant movement was conducted mainly in which two States?
A. Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh
B. Karnataka and Kerala
C. Maharashtra and Goa
D. Odisha and Chhattisgarh
Answer: B. Karnataka and Kerala
Explanation: The research focused on the southern Western Ghats covering parts of Karnataka and Kerala, highlighting how rainfall patterns influence elephant movement and human-elephant interactions.
12. The Union Territory administration recently decided that all districts of Ladakh will have which local self-governing institution?
A. Zila Parishads
B. Autonomous Hill Development Councils
C. Municipal Corporations
D. Regional Development Authorities
Answer: B. Autonomous Hill Development Councils
Explanation: The Ladakh administration announced that all districts of the Union Territory will have Autonomous Hill Development Councils (AHDCs). Earlier, only Leh and Kargil had such councils. The move aims to strengthen local governance and decentralised administration.
The Ladakh Autonomous Hill Development Council (LAHDC) Act provides for elected autonomous councils to administer local affairs in Ladakh. Until now, such councils existed only in Leh and Kargil.
Before the latest announcement, Leh and Kargil were the only districts with Autonomous Hill Development Councils. The administration has now decided to establish similar councils in every district of Ladakh.
13. India and Japan recently reviewed defence ties in preparation for which dialogue mechanism?
A. QUAD Defence Dialogue
B. India-Japan 2+2 Dialogue
C. ASEAN Defence Ministers’ Meeting
D. East Asia Summit Security Dialogue
Answer: B. India-Japan 2+2 Dialogue
Explanation: India and Japan reviewed bilateral defence cooperation ahead of the India-Japan 2+2 Dialogue, a ministerial-level mechanism involving the Foreign Ministers and Defence Ministers of both countries to strengthen strategic and security cooperation.
The 2+2 Dialogue is a strategic mechanism involving the Foreign Ministers and Defence Ministers of India and Japan. It focuses on defence cooperation, maritime security, regional stability, and strategic partnerships.
14. Which Central Armed Police Force (CAPF) was recently in the news after an IED blast in Nagaland?
A. Border Security Force (BSF)
B. Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF)
C. Assam Rifles
D. Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP)
Answer: C. Assam Rifles
Explanation: An Assam Rifles jawan was killed and four others were injured in an IED blast in Nagaland. Assam Rifles is India’s oldest paramilitary force and primarily guards the India–Myanmar border while conducting counter-insurgency operations in the Northeast.
Assam Rifles is administratively under the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA), while its operational control is exercised by the Indian Army. It is known as the “Sentinels of the North East.”
15. Researchers recently reported serious vulnerabilities in which Government of India digital platform?
A. DigiLocker
B. UMANG
C. eNAM
D. GeM
Answer: B. UMANG
Explanation: Researchers identified security vulnerabilities in the UMANG (Unified Mobile Application for New-age Governance) portal that allegedly exposed sensitive user data. The Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) acknowledged the vulnerabilities and stated that corrective measures are being implemented.
16. What does UMANG stand for?
A. Unified Management for National Governance
B. Unified Mobile Application for New-age Governance
C. Universal Mobile Access for National Governance
D. Unified Monitoring Application for National Growth
Answer: B. Unified Mobile Application for New-age Governance
Explanation: UMANG is a Government of India platform that provides access to hundreds of Central and State Government services through a single mobile application and web portal.
UMANG has been developed by the National e-Governance Division (NeGD) under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) as part of the Digital India initiative.
UMANG is one of the major citizen-service platforms launched under the Digital India Mission, enabling citizens to access numerous government services through a single interface.
17. Universities recently sought a clearer framework for grants under the VBSA Bill. The proposed VBSA is intended to regulate:
A. Technical education institutions only
B. Public and private universities in India
C. Medical colleges only
D. School education boards
Answer: B. Public and private universities in India
Explanation: The proposed VBSA (Vidya Bharati Shiksha Authority) Bill aims to create a new regulatory framework for higher education institutions, replacing or restructuring aspects of the existing regulatory architecture. Universities have sought greater clarity regarding grant disbursal and institutional autonomy.
18. Sonam Wangchuk, recently in the news, is best known for his work in:
A. Nuclear Physics
B. Education reform and sustainable development in Ladakh
C. Space research
D. Marine conservation
Answer: B. Education reform and sustainable development in Ladakh
Explanation: Sonam Wangchuk is an engineer, education reformer and innovator from Ladakh. He is widely known for founding the Students’ Educational and Cultural Movement of Ladakh (SECMOL) and for promoting sustainable technologies suited to Himalayan conditions.
19. According to the CBSE’s latest circular, from which academic session will Class 10 students have to pass the third language internal assessment to be declared successful?
A. 2025–26
B. 2026–27
C. 2027–28
D. 2028–29
Answer: C. 2027–28
Explanation: CBSE clarified that from the 2027–28 academic session, Class 10 students must pass the internal assessment in the third language to be declared successful. Schools must reassess students who fail the internal assessment before the final result is announced.
20. The CBSE’s recent circular on third-language assessment has been issued in line with the objectives of which national policy?
A. National Education Policy (NEP), 2020
B. National Policy on Education, 1986
C. National Curriculum Framework, 2005
D. Right to Education Act, 2009
Answer: A. National Education Policy (NEP), 2020
Explanation: The circular implements the three-language formula envisaged under the National Education Policy (NEP), 2020, which promotes multilingualism and aims to strengthen linguistic diversity and cognitive development.
21. The three-language formula promoted under NEP 2020 seeks to encourage:
A. Only Hindi and English education
B. Multilingual learning while allowing flexibility in language choice
C. Compulsory Sanskrit for all students
D. A uniform language across all States
Answer: B. Multilingual learning while allowing flexibility in language choice
Explanation: NEP 2020 supports the three-language formula, emphasizing multilingualism and flexibility. No language is imposed on any State, region, or student under the policy.
22. The Supreme Court recently sought the Centre’s response regarding the implementation of which aviation regulation?
A. Drone Rules, 2021
B. Bharatiya Vayuyan Adhiniyam, 2024
C. Aircraft Act, 1934
D. Airports Economic Regulatory Authority Act, 2008
Answer: B. Bharatiya Vayuyan Adhiniyam, 2024
Explanation: The Supreme Court asked the Centre to place on record the new rules framed under the Bharatiya Vayuyan Adhiniyam, 2024, which replaces the colonial-era Aircraft Act framework and governs India’s civil aviation sector.
23. The Supreme Court recently observed that restricting minors’ access to pornography is:
A. A violation of freedom of expression
B. Essential for protecting children from exploitation
C. The responsibility of schools alone
D. Beyond the jurisdiction of courts
Answer: B. Essential for protecting children from exploitation
Explanation: While hearing a petition on online child safety, the Supreme Court emphasized the need to restrict minors’ access to pornographic content to protect children from exploitation and harmful psychological effects.
24. The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act was enacted in which year?
A. 2009
B. 2010
C. 2012
D. 2015
Answer: C. 2012
Explanation: The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, 2012 is a comprehensive law enacted to protect children below 18 years from sexual assault, sexual harassment, and pornography. It provides for child-friendly investigation and trial procedures.
25. Under the POCSO Act, a “child” means a person below the age of:
A. 14 years
B. 16 years
C. 18 years
D. 21 years
Answer: C. 18 years
Explanation: The POCSO Act defines a child as any person below 18 years of age and provides special legal safeguards for offences committed against children.
26. The Supreme Court recently questioned the misuse of which law in cases involving consensual teenage relationships?
A. Juvenile Justice Act, 2015
B. Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, 2012
C. Information Technology Act, 2000
D. Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023
Answer: B. Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, 2012
Explanation: The Supreme Court expressed concern that the POCSO Act is sometimes invoked in cases involving consensual teenage relationships, emphasizing the need to distinguish exploitative offences from adolescent relationships while ensuring child protection.
27. Researchers recently identified an efficient material for removing tritium from nuclear wastewater. Tritium is an isotope of:
A. Uranium
B. Hydrogen
C. Helium
D. Carbon
Answer: B. Hydrogen
Explanation: Tritium (³H) is a radioactive isotope of hydrogen. It is difficult to remove from water because it chemically behaves like ordinary hydrogen in water molecules. The recent study proposed a more efficient filtration technique for tritium-containing wastewater.
28. The recent study on filtering nuclear wastewater was inspired by wastewater treatment at which nuclear power plant?
A. Chernobyl Nuclear Power Plant (Ukraine)
B. Fukushima Daiichi Nuclear Power Plant (Japan)
C. Three Mile Island Nuclear Plant (USA)
D. Zaporizhzhia Nuclear Power Plant (Ukraine)
Answer: B. Fukushima Daiichi Nuclear Power Plant (Japan)
Explanation: The study was motivated by Japan’s treatment and release of wastewater from the Fukushima Daiichi Nuclear Power Plant. The new filtration method aims to improve the removal of radioactive tritium, which conventional treatment cannot easily separate.
29. Tritium is primarily associated with which type of radiation?
A. Alpha radiation
B. Beta radiation
C. Gamma radiation
D. Neutron radiation
Answer: B. Beta radiation
Explanation: Tritium is a low-energy beta emitter with a half-life of about 12.3 years. It is widely used in scientific research, self-luminous devices, and as a radioactive tracer.
30. Which radioactive isotope is particularly difficult to remove from nuclear wastewater because it forms part of the water molecule itself?
A. Uranium-235
B. Cesium-137
C. Tritium
D. Iodine-131
Answer: C. Tritium
Explanation: Tritium replaces ordinary hydrogen in water molecules, forming tritiated water (HTO). Since it behaves almost identically to normal water, separating it through conventional filtration methods is extremely challenging.
31. Gene drives, discussed in a recent science article, are primarily designed to:
A. Increase the speed of DNA sequencing
B. Increase the inheritance of a particular gene in a population
C. Produce genetically identical organisms
D. Repair damaged chromosomes in humans
Answer: B. Increase the inheritance of a particular gene in a population
Explanation: Gene drives are genetic engineering systems that bias inheritance so a selected gene is passed to offspring more frequently than predicted by normal Mendelian inheritance. They are being explored to control disease vectors such as mosquitoes carrying malaria.
32. Gene drives are being researched as a tool to control which major mosquito-borne disease?
A. Dengue only
B. Japanese Encephalitis only
C. Malaria
D. Chikungunya only
Answer: C. Malaria
Explanation: Scientists are investigating gene drive technology to reduce or eliminate populations of Anopheles mosquitoes, the primary vectors of malaria, thereby helping to reduce disease transmission.
33. Which Nobel Prize-winning technology made modern gene editing possible?
A. Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)
B. CRISPR-Cas9
C. Recombinant DNA Technology
D. DNA Fingerprinting
Answer: B. CRISPR-Cas9
Explanation: CRISPR-Cas9 is a revolutionary gene-editing technology that allows scientists to modify DNA with high precision. It received the 2020 Nobel Prize in Chemistry and has accelerated research in medicine, agriculture, and biotechnology.
34. The major concern associated with gene drive technology is that it may:
A. Reduce biodiversity by spreading engineered genes uncontrollably
B. Increase atmospheric carbon dioxide
C. Cause global warming directly
D. Replace conventional vaccines
Answer: A. Reduce biodiversity by spreading engineered genes uncontrollably
Explanation: While gene drives may help control disease-carrying organisms, scientists caution that they could spread beyond the target population, potentially affecting ecosystems and biodiversity. Their ecological impacts require careful assessment before field deployment.
35. The right to vote in elections to the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies in India is a:
A. Fundamental Right
B. Constitutional Right
C. Statutory Right
D. Natural Right
Answer: C. Statutory Right
Explanation: The right to vote is a statutory right, provided under the Representation of the People Act, 1950 and 1951. Although voting is essential to democracy, it is not a Fundamental Right.
36. The Representation of the People Act, 1950 primarily deals with:
A. Conduct of elections and election disputes
B. Preparation and revision of electoral rolls
C. Anti-defection provisions
D. Delimitation of parliamentary constituencies only
Answer: B. Preparation and revision of electoral rolls
Explanation: The Representation of the People Act, 1950 deals mainly with electoral rolls, allocation of seats, and qualifications of voters, whereas the Representation of the People Act, 1951 governs the conduct of elections and election disputes.
37. The Representation of the People Act, 1951 primarily deals with:
A. Citizenship determination
B. Conduct of elections, qualifications and disqualifications of candidates, and election disputes
C. Delimitation of constituencies
D. Local body elections
Answer: B. Conduct of elections, qualifications and disqualifications of candidates, and election disputes
Explanation: The Representation of the People Act, 1951 regulates the conduct of elections, qualifications and disqualifications of candidates, corrupt practices, and election petitions.
38. Pressurised Heavy Water Reactors (PHWRs), frequently used in India’s nuclear programme, primarily use:
A. Light water as moderator and coolant
B. Heavy water as moderator and coolant
C. Graphite as moderator only
D. Liquid sodium as coolant
Answer: B. Heavy water as moderator and coolant
Explanation: India’s nuclear power programme largely relies on Pressurised Heavy Water Reactors (PHWRs), which use heavy water (D₂O) as both the moderator and coolant, while natural uranium serves as the fuel.
39. India’s three-stage nuclear power programme was originally proposed by:
A. Vikram Sarabhai
B. Homi J. Bhabha
C. Raja Ramanna
D. Anil Kakodkar
Answer: B. Homi J. Bhabha
Explanation: India’s three-stage nuclear power programme was conceived by Dr. Homi Jehangir Bhabha to utilize the country’s limited uranium and abundant thorium resources for long-term energy security.
40. Which element is central to the third stage of India’s nuclear power programme?
A. Uranium-235
B. Plutonium-239
C. Thorium-232
D. Lithium-6
Answer: C. Thorium-232
Explanation: The third stage of India’s nuclear programme aims to use Thorium-232 to breed Uranium-233, enabling long-term sustainable nuclear energy production.
41. Which Indian organisation is primarily responsible for the development and operation of nuclear power plants in the country?
A. DRDO
B. Nuclear Power Corporation of India Limited (NPCIL)
C. ISRO
D. BARC
Answer: B. Nuclear Power Corporation of India Limited (NPCIL)
Explanation: NPCIL, a public sector enterprise under the Department of Atomic Energy (DAE), is responsible for the construction and operation of commercial nuclear power plants in India.
42. The Census in India is conducted under which Act?
A. Registration of Births and Deaths Act, 1969
B. Census Act, 1948
C. Collection of Statistics Act, 2008
D. Citizenship Act, 1955
Answer: B. Census Act, 1948
Explanation: The Census Act, 1948 provides the legal framework for conducting the Census in India. The Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner, India, conducts the Census under this Act.
The Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner, India, under the Ministry of Home Affairs, is responsible for conducting the decennial Census and maintaining vital demographic statistics.
India follows a decennial Census, conducted every 10 years since 1881 without interruption until the postponement of the 2021 Census.
The Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner operates under the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA). It is responsible for the Census, Civil Registration System (CRS), and Sample Registration System (SRS).
43. Which system provides annual estimates of fertility and mortality in India between two Censuses?
A. National Family Health Survey (NFHS)
B. Civil Registration System (CRS)
C. Sample Registration System (SRS)
D. Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS)
Answer: C. Sample Registration System (SRS)
Explanation: The Sample Registration System (SRS) is India’s largest demographic survey. It provides annual estimates of birth rate, death rate, infant mortality rate, and fertility indicators between two Census rounds.
44. Which of the following is not a source of migration data in India?
A. Census of India
B. National Sample Survey (NSS) migration rounds
C. Population Enumeration records
D. India Meteorological Department
Answer: D. India Meteorological Department
Explanation: Migration statistics in India are obtained mainly from the Census, National Sample Survey (NSS), and other demographic surveys. The India Meteorological Department (IMD) deals with weather and climate, not population statistics.
45. The Sustainable Alternative Towards Affordable Transportation (SATAT) initiative was launched in:
A. 2016
B. 2018
C. 2020
D. 2022
Answer: B. 2018
Explanation: The SATAT (Sustainable Alternative Towards Affordable Transportation) initiative was launched in 2018 to promote the production and use of Compressed Biogas (CBG), reduce dependence on fossil fuels, and improve waste management.
The Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas (MoPNG) launched the SATAT initiative in collaboration with Oil Marketing Companies to establish a nationwide ecosystem for Compressed Biogas (CBG).
46. The National Biofuels Coordination Committee (NBCC) recently approved mandatory blending of which fuel with CNG and PNG?
A. Ethanol
B. Biodiesel
C. Compressed Biogas (CBG)
D. Green Hydrogen
Answer: C. Compressed Biogas (CBG)
Explanation: The National Biofuels Coordination Committee (NBCC) approved the mandatory blending of Compressed Biogas (CBG) with Compressed Natural Gas (CNG) and Piped Natural Gas (PNG). The blending target starts at 1% and gradually increases to 5%.
47. Which Union Minister chairs the National Biofuels Coordination Committee (NBCC)?
A. Minister of Petroleum and Natural Gas
B. Minister of New and Renewable Energy
C. Prime Minister
D. Minister of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
Answer: C. Prime Minister
Explanation: The National Biofuels Coordination Committee (NBCC) is the apex body for policy coordination on biofuels and is chaired by the Prime Minister.
48. The primary objective of the SATAT initiative is to:
A. Increase crude oil imports
B. Promote Compressed Biogas (CBG) production and reduce dependence on fossil fuels
C. Replace solar energy with biomass energy
D. Promote only ethanol blending
Answer: B. Promote Compressed Biogas (CBG) production and reduce dependence on fossil fuels
Explanation: SATAT aims to establish thousands of CBG plants, convert agricultural residue and organic waste into clean fuel, reduce stubble burning, create rural employment, and enhance India’s energy security.
49. India imports approximately what percentage of its crude oil requirement?
A. About 45%
B. About 60%
C. About 70%
D. About 85%
Answer: D. About 85%
Explanation: India imports around 85% of its crude oil requirement, making energy security a major policy priority. Diversifying energy sources through biofuels, renewables, and domestic production helps reduce import dependence.
50. The India–Australia Civil Nuclear Cooperation Agreement was signed in:
A. 2008
B. 2010
C. 2014
D. 2018
Answer: C. 2014
Explanation: India and Australia signed the Civil Nuclear Cooperation Agreement in 2014, enabling Australia to supply uranium to India for peaceful civilian nuclear purposes.
51. Uranium supplied by Australia to India can be used only for:
A. Defence and civilian nuclear programmes
B. Civilian nuclear power generation under IAEA safeguards
C. Nuclear submarine programme
D. Nuclear weapons development
Answer: B. Civilian nuclear power generation under IAEA safeguards
Explanation: Under the India–Australia Civil Nuclear Cooperation Agreement, Australian uranium can be supplied only for peaceful civilian nuclear purposes. The material remains subject to International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) safeguards.
The IAEA monitors civilian nuclear facilities under international safeguards to ensure that imported nuclear material is used exclusively for peaceful purposes and not diverted for military use.
52. India obtained a waiver from the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG) in which year, allowing international civil nuclear cooperation?
A. 1998
B. 2005
C. 2008
D. 2015
Answer: C. 2008
Explanation: In 2008, the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG) granted India a historic waiver, allowing it to engage in international civilian nuclear trade despite not being a signatory to the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT).
53. India is not a signatory to which of the following treaties?
A. Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD)
B. Paris Agreement
C. Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT)
D. Ramsar Convention
Answer: C. Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT)
Explanation: India is not a signatory to the NPT, considering it discriminatory. However, India follows a policy of responsible nuclear stewardship and places its civilian nuclear facilities under IAEA safeguards.
54. A recent study on linguistic diversity found that isolated communities generally preserve:
A. More genetically diverse populations but fewer languages
B. Greater linguistic diversity due to limited outside interaction
C. Uniform languages across neighbouring regions
D. No relationship between geography and language
Answer: B. Greater linguistic diversity due to limited outside interaction
Explanation: The study found that geographically isolated communities tend to preserve unique languages because they experience less interaction and language mixing with neighbouring populations.
55. According to the recent research, linguistic diversity is generally highest in:
A. Highly urbanised regions
B. Regions with frequent migration and trade
C. Isolated and geographically difficult areas
D. Coastal metropolitan cities
Answer: C. Isolated and geographically difficult areas
Explanation: Remote and isolated regions often retain distinct languages for long periods because there is less migration and cultural exchange, allowing languages to evolve independently.
56. Rachel Carson, featured in the Daily Quiz, is best known for which influential environmental book?
A. The Origin of Species
B. Silent Spring
C. Walden
D. The Limits to Growth
Answer: B. Silent Spring
Explanation: Rachel Carson’s Silent Spring (1962) exposed the harmful effects of indiscriminate pesticide use, particularly DDT, and is regarded as a landmark work that inspired the modern environmental movement.
57. Rachel Carson’s Silent Spring primarily highlighted the harmful effects of:
A. Plastic pollution
B. Air pollution from industries
C. Indiscriminate use of chemical pesticides
D. Nuclear radiation
Answer: C. Indiscriminate use of chemical pesticides
Explanation: Silent Spring documented how excessive pesticide use, especially DDT, harmed birds, wildlife, and ecosystems, leading to greater environmental awareness and stricter pesticide regulation.
58. Rachel Carson is widely regarded as a pioneer of the modern:
A. Space exploration movement
B. Environmental movement
C. Green Revolution
D. Biotechnology revolution
Answer: B. Environmental movement
Explanation: Rachel Carson’s writings transformed public understanding of environmental conservation and significantly influenced environmental policies across the world.
59. Which pesticide became internationally controversial after the publication of Rachel Carson’s Silent Spring?
A. Glyphosate
B. Atrazine
C. DDT
D. Malathion
Answer: C. DDT
Explanation: DDT (Dichloro-Diphenyl-Trichloroethane) became the focus of global concern after Silent Spring. Many countries later restricted or banned its agricultural use because of its harmful environmental impacts.
60. India’s trade deficit increased sharply in June 2026 mainly due to:
A. Decline in service exports
B. Surge in merchandise imports, especially crude oil and gold
C. Fall in agricultural exports
D. Decline in software exports
Answer: B. Surge in merchandise imports, especially crude oil and gold
Explanation: India’s trade deficit widened to about $15.3 billion in June 2026 as imports grew significantly, driven mainly by higher crude oil and gold imports. Although exports also increased, imports grew at a much faster pace.
India’s merchandise export and import data are released by the Department of Commerce, Ministry of Commerce and Industry. These figures are used to calculate the country’s merchandise trade balance.
61. A trade deficit occurs when:
A. Exports exceed imports
B. Imports exceed exports
C. Exports equal imports
D. Government expenditure exceeds revenue
Answer: B. Imports exceed exports
Explanation: A trade deficit arises when the value of a country’s imports is greater than its exports during a given period. It is one component of the broader Current Account Balance.
62. Which of the following is not included in merchandise trade?
A. Crude oil
B. Gold
C. Software services
D. Machinery
Answer: C. Software services
Explanation: Merchandise trade covers physical goods such as petroleum, machinery, and gold. Software exports are classified under services trade, not merchandise trade.
63. OpenAI recently launched which new feature in ChatGPT in India?
A. GPT Store
B. Work Agent
C. Deep Research
D. Voice Translator
Answer: B. Work Agent
Explanation: OpenAI introduced the Work Agent in ChatGPT for users in India. The feature is designed to perform multi-step tasks, automate workflows, analyze documents, browse the web, and interact with applications on behalf of users.
64. The newly launched ChatGPT Work Agent is primarily designed to:
A. Replace internet browsers completely
B. Perform multi-step tasks and automate workflows on behalf of users
C. Generate computer hardware
D. Create video games automatically
Answer: B. Perform multi-step tasks and automate workflows on behalf of users
Explanation: The Work Agent can browse websites, analyze documents, manage spreadsheets, interact with applications, and complete complex workflows with limited user intervention.
65. The Government described higher imports of Russian crude oil as part of India’s strategy to:
A. Increase dependence on a single supplier
B. Diversify crude oil sources and strengthen energy security
C. Reduce domestic refining capacity
D. Promote only renewable energy
Answer: B. Diversify crude oil sources and strengthen energy security
Explanation: The Government stated that increased imports of Russian crude oil are part of India’s policy to diversify energy sources, reduce supply risks, and enhance energy security while securing crude at competitive prices.
66. Which of the following best describes energy security?
A. Producing all energy domestically regardless of cost
B. Ensuring reliable, affordable, and uninterrupted access to energy supplies
C. Eliminating all fossil fuel use immediately
D. Depending on a single foreign supplier
Answer: B. Ensuring reliable, affordable, and uninterrupted access to energy supplies
Explanation: Energy security refers to the availability of reliable, affordable, and uninterrupted energy supplies. India pursues diversification of import sources, renewable energy, and strategic petroleum reserves to improve energy security.
67. The U.S. Supreme Court recently ruled in favour of Bayer in a case involving which controversial herbicide?
A. Paraquat
B. Atrazine
C. Roundup (Glyphosate)
D. 2,4-D
Answer: C. Roundup (Glyphosate)
Explanation: The U.S. Supreme Court declined to hear a case against Bayer over its herbicide Roundup, whose active ingredient is glyphosate. The decision allowed lower court rulings favourable to Bayer to stand. Glyphosate remains one of the world’s most widely used herbicides.
68. Glyphosate, frequently seen in the news, is primarily used as a:
A. Fungicide
B. Herbicide
C. Insecticide
D. Rodenticide
Answer: B. Herbicide
Explanation: Glyphosate is a broad-spectrum herbicide used to control weeds in agriculture. It has been the subject of global debate regarding its possible health effects and environmental impact.
69. Russia recently announced plans to establish a logistics hub at which Syrian port?
A. Latakia
B. Tartus
C. Baniyas
D. Jableh
Answer: B. Tartus
Explanation: Russia plans to establish a commercial logistics hub at the Port of Tartus in Syria. Tartus hosts Russia’s only naval facility in the Mediterranean and is strategically important for maintaining Russian influence in the region.
Tartus is a major Mediterranean port city in western Syria. It has long served as Russia’s principal naval and logistical facility in the Mediterranean Sea.
The Port of Tartus is situated on the Mediterranean Sea, giving Russia a strategic maritime presence beyond the Black Sea and supporting its naval operations in the Middle East.
70. Why is the Strait of Hormuz strategically important to the global economy?
A. It is the world’s largest fishing zone.
B. A significant share of global crude oil and LNG exports passes through it.
C. It is the only sea route connecting Europe and Asia.
D. It contains the world’s largest offshore wind farms.
Answer: B. A significant share of global crude oil and LNG exports passes through it.
Explanation: The Strait of Hormuz is one of the busiest energy trade routes in the world. A large proportion of global crude oil and liquefied natural gas (LNG) exports transit through it, making any disruption a major concern for global energy security.
71. Approximately what share of the world’s seaborne crude oil passes through the Strait of Hormuz?
A. About 5%
B. About 10%
C. About 20%
D. About 50%
Answer: C. About 20%
Explanation: Around 20% of the world’s seaborne crude oil passes through the Strait of Hormuz, making it one of the most critical routes for global energy supplies. Any disruption can significantly affect international oil prices.
72. Which country shares the longest coastline along the Persian Gulf?
A. Saudi Arabia
B. Iran
C. United Arab Emirates
D. Kuwait
Answer: B. Iran
Explanation: Iran has the longest coastline along the Persian Gulf, giving it significant strategic influence over maritime routes, including the Strait of Hormuz.
73. The Bab el-Mandeb Strait connects the:
A. Persian Gulf and Gulf of Oman
B. Red Sea and Gulf of Aden
C. Mediterranean Sea and Red Sea
D. Arabian Sea and Bay of Bengal
Answer: B. Red Sea and Gulf of Aden
Explanation: The Bab el-Mandeb Strait is a strategic chokepoint connecting the Red Sea with the Gulf of Aden, and further to the Arabian Sea via the Indian Ocean. It is vital for global trade and energy shipments.
74. The Red Sea connects to the Mediterranean Sea through the:
A. Bosporus Strait
B. Strait of Hormuz
C. Suez Canal
D. Panama Canal
Answer: C. Suez Canal
Explanation: The Suez Canal links the Red Sea with the Mediterranean Sea, providing the shortest maritime route between Europe and Asia without circumnavigating Africa.
75. Which strategic waterway lies at the southern entrance of the Red Sea?
A. Strait of Malacca
B. Bab el-Mandeb Strait
C. Bosporus Strait
D. Dover Strait
Answer: B. Bab el-Mandeb Strait
Explanation: The Bab el-Mandeb Strait forms the southern gateway to the Red Sea. It is a critical route for global shipping and has gained strategic importance due to regional conflicts and Houthi attacks.
76. The Horn of Africa includes which of the following countries?
A. Ethiopia, Somalia, Eritrea and Djibouti
B. Egypt, Sudan, Libya and Chad
C. Kenya, Tanzania, Uganda and Rwanda
D. Saudi Arabia, Yemen, Oman and UAE
Answer: A. Ethiopia, Somalia, Eritrea and Djibouti
Explanation: The Horn of Africa comprises Ethiopia, Somalia, Eritrea, and Djibouti. The region is strategically located near the Bab el-Mandeb Strait and plays an important role in global maritime security.
77. India recently defeated which country to register its first-ever Women’s Test victory at Lord’s?
A. Australia
B. South Africa
C. England
D. New Zealand
Answer: C. England
Explanation: India created history by defeating England by 270 runs at Lord’s Cricket Ground, registering its first-ever Women’s Test victory at Lord’s. The win is regarded as one of the greatest achievements in Indian women’s cricket.
78. Alexander Zverev, who recently returned to World No. 2, belongs to which country?
A. Austria
B. Germany
C. Switzerland
D. Serbia
Answer: B. Germany
Explanation: Alexander Zverev is a German professional tennis player. His recent performances helped him regain the World No. 2 ranking.
79. Which tennis player is referred to as one of the sport’s “Big Three”?
A. Carlos Alcaraz
B. Jannik Sinner
C. Novak Djokovic
D. Daniil Medvedev
Answer: C. Novak Djokovic
Explanation: The traditional “Big Three” of men’s tennis consists of Novak Djokovic, Roger Federer, and Rafael Nadal, who have dominated world tennis for nearly two decades.
80. The FIFA World Cup 2026 is being jointly hosted by which three countries?
A. United States, Canada and Mexico
B. United States, Costa Rica and Mexico
C. Canada, Mexico and Brazil
D. United States, Panama and Canada
Answer: A. United States, Canada and Mexico
Explanation: The 2026 FIFA World Cup is the first edition to be jointly hosted by three countries—United States, Canada, and Mexico. It is also the first World Cup featuring 48 teams.
FIFA is headquartered in Zurich, Switzerland, and governs international football competitions worldwide.
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