Answer: (A) Chelsea

Explanation

Chelsea won the 2025 FIFA Club World Cup, defeating Paris Saint-Germain (PSG) 3–0 in the final. The tournament was the first edition of the expanded 32-team FIFA Club World Cup, held in the United States from 14 June to 13 July 2025.

Exam Facts

• Winner (2025): Chelsea (England).
• Runner-up: Paris Saint-Germain (France).
• Host Country: United States.
• Tournament Duration: 14 June – 13 July 2025.
• Format: First 32-team FIFA Club World Cup, held once every four years.
• Organiser: FIFA (Fédération Internationale de Football Association).
• Player of the Tournament (Golden Ball): Cole Palmer (Chelsea).
• Most successful club in FIFA Club World Cup history: Real Madrid (5 titles).

Answer: (B) digital, paperless census using electronic data collection methods.

Explanation

The Census 2027 is India’s first fully digital and paperless Census. Enumerators collect data using mobile applications, and citizens are also provided the option of self-enumeration through a secure web portal. This digital approach aims to improve data accuracy, speed up processing, and enable real-time monitoring.

Exam Facts

• Census 2027 is India’s first fully digital Census.
• Self-enumeration has been introduced for the first time through a secure online portal.
• The Census is conducted under the Census Act, 1948 and the Census Rules, 1990.
• Reference date: 1 March 2027 (1 October 2026 for Ladakh and certain snow-bound areas).
• The Census is conducted in two phases:
  • Phase I: Houselisting and Housing Census
  • Phase II: Population Enumeration.
• Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India (RGI) is the nodal authority responsible for conducting the Census.
• Caste enumeration has been included in Census 2027, making it the first official Census to collect caste data since 1931.
• 2011 was the last Census conducted in India before Census 2027.

Answer: (C) International Year of Women Farmers

Explanation

The United Nations General Assembly declared 2026 as the International Year of the Woman Farmer (IYWF 2026). The observance aims to recognize the vital contribution of women to agriculture and food systems while promoting gender equality, food security, and sustainable rural development.

Exam Facts

• 2026: International Year of the Woman Farmer (Women Farmers).
• Declared by: United Nations General Assembly.
• UN Resolution: A/RES/78/279.
• Lead UN Agency: Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO).
• Objective: Promote women’s empowerment in agriculture, improve access to land, finance, technology, education, and markets, and reduce gender inequalities in agrifood systems.
• Other UN International Years for 2026:
  • International Year of Volunteers for Sustainable Development
  • International Year of Rangelands and Pastoralists.
• FAO Headquarters: Rome, Italy.
• Common Exam Fact: FAO was established in 1945 and is a specialized agency of the United Nations.

Answer: (A) It is near the Olkiluoto Nuclear Power Plant on the west coast of Finland.

Explanation

Finland became the first country in the world to establish a permanent deep geological repository for spent nuclear fuel. The repository, named Onkalo, is located near the Olkiluoto Nuclear Power Plant on Finland’s west coast. It is designed to safely store high-level radioactive waste deep underground for thousands of years.

Exam Facts

• Repository Name: Onkalo (meaning “cavity” or “hollow” in Finnish).
• Location: Near Olkiluoto Nuclear Power Plant, Eurajoki, west coast of Finland.
• Country: Finland.
• Purpose: Permanent disposal of spent nuclear fuel (high-level radioactive waste).
• Depth: Approximately 430 metres below the ground.
• Operator: Posiva Oy, a Finnish nuclear waste management company.
• Significance: World’s first permanent deep geological repository for spent nuclear fuel.
• Frequently Asked Fact: Finland’s capital is Helsinki, while the repository is not located near Helsinki but at Olkiluoto in Eurajoki.

Answer: (D) Tomahawk

Explanation

Tomahawk is a long-range cruise missile developed by the United States for offensive strikes against land targets. It is not a missile defence system. In contrast, Iron Dome, David’s Sling, and THAAD are missile defence systems designed to intercept incoming rockets, missiles, or ballistic threats.

Exam Facts

• Iron Dome: Intercepts short-range rockets, artillery shells, and drones; developed by Israel.
• David’s Sling: Intercepts medium- and long-range rockets, cruise missiles, and tactical ballistic missiles.
• Arrow-2 and Arrow-3: Israel’s missile defence systems for long-range ballistic missiles; Arrow-3 can intercept missiles outside the Earth’s atmosphere.
• THAAD (Terminal High Altitude Area Defense): A U.S.-developed ballistic missile defence system capable of intercepting missiles during their terminal phase.
• Tomahawk: A long-range subsonic cruise missile developed by the United States for precision strikes against land targets.
• Developer of Iron Dome: Rafael Advanced Defense Systems (Israel) with support from the United States.
• Common Exam Fact: Israel’s missile defence is a multi-layered system comprising Iron Dome, David’s Sling, Arrow-2, and Arrow-3, designed to counter threats of varying ranges and altitudes.

Answer: (A) AIIMS, New Delhi

Explanation

AIIMS, New Delhi launched the “Never Alone” AI-based Mental Health and Wellness App to provide 24×7 mental health support for students. The app offers AI-assisted mental health screening, counselling, intervention, and follow-up services to help prevent suicides and reduce the stigma associated with mental health issues.

Exam Facts

• Launched by: AIIMS, New Delhi.
• Purpose: AI-based mental health screening, counselling, intervention, and follow-up for students.
• Launch Occasion: World Suicide Prevention Day (10 September).
• Platform: Web-based application accessible through WhatsApp.
• Concept Lead: Dr. Nand Kumar, Professor, Department of Psychiatry, AIIMS, New Delhi.
• Target Group: College and university students to address stress, anxiety, depression, and suicidal tendencies.
• Common Exam Fact: AIIMS, New Delhi was established in 1956 under the All India Institute of Medical Sciences Act, 1956.
• Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Government of India.

Answer: (A) Russia and China

Explanation

On 7 April 2026, Russia and China vetoed a United Nations Security Council (UNSC) resolution that sought to encourage coordinated international efforts to protect commercial shipping and improve maritime security in the Strait of Hormuz. The two countries argued that the resolution was biased against Iran. The resolution received 11 votes in favour, while Pakistan and Colombia abstained.

Exam Facts

• Date of veto: 7 April 2026.
• Countries exercising veto: Russia and China.
• UNSC Permanent Members (P5): China, France, Russia, United Kingdom, United States.
• Abstaining countries: Pakistan and Colombia.
• Strait of Hormuz: Connects the Persian Gulf with the Gulf of Oman and the Arabian Sea.
• Bordering countries: Iran (north) and Oman & the United Arab Emirates (UAE) (south).
• Around 20% of global oil trade passes through the Strait of Hormuz, making it one of the world’s most strategically important maritime chokepoints.
• UN Security Council: Comprises 15 members—5 permanent members with veto power and 10 non-permanent members elected for two-year terms.

Answer: (C) California

Explanation

California officially declared Diwali a state holiday, with the law taking effect from 1 January 2026. The legislation allows state employees to observe Diwali using a paid holiday and permits public schools and community colleges to close or excuse students on the festival, recognizing the contributions of Hindu, Sikh, Jain, and Buddhist communities.

Exam Facts

• Correct Answer: California.
• Effective Date: 1 January 2026.
• Signed by: Governor Gavin Newsom.
• California became the third U.S. state to officially recognize Diwali as a state holiday, after Pennsylvania and Connecticut.
• Diwali is known as the Festival of Lights and is celebrated by Hindus, Sikhs, Jains, and many Buddhists.
• New York City declared Diwali a public school holiday beginning in 2023, but this was a city-level school holiday, not a statewide holiday.
• Boston is not a U.S. state; it is the capital city of Massachusetts.
• Common Exam Fact: Diwali usually falls in October or November, based on the Hindu lunisolar calendar.

Answer: (A) Burkina Faso, Mali, Niger

Explanation

Burkina Faso, Mali, and Niger jointly announced their withdrawal from the International Criminal Court (ICC), accusing the Court of being a tool of “neo-colonial repression” and lacking impartiality. The three military-led Sahel nations formally notified the United Nations Secretary-General of their withdrawal in June 2026, initiating the one-year withdrawal process under the Rome Statute.

Exam Facts

• Countries withdrawing: Burkina Faso, Mali, and Niger.
• These countries are members of the Alliance of Sahel States (AES), established in 2024.
• ICC Headquarters: The Hague, Netherlands.
• ICC Established: 1 July 2002 under the Rome Statute (1998).
• Purpose of ICC: Prosecutes individuals for genocide, crimes against humanity, war crimes, and the crime of aggression.
• India, the United States, China, Russia, and Israel are not States Parties to the Rome Statute.
• Withdrawal from the Rome Statute takes effect one year after the formal notification to the UN Secretary-General.
• Important Distinction: The International Criminal Court (ICC) is different from the International Court of Justice (ICJ). The ICC tries individuals, whereas the ICJ settles disputes between States.

Answer: (B) Sustainable Harnessing and Advancement of Nuclear Energy for Transforming India (SHANTI) Act, 2025

Explanation

The SHANTI Act, 2025 stands for Sustainable Harnessing and Advancement of Nuclear Energy for Transforming India Act, 2025. It modernizes India’s nuclear legal framework by replacing the Atomic Energy Act, 1962 and the Civil Liability for Nuclear Damage Act, 2010. The Act aims to promote nuclear energy, enable limited private sector participation under regulatory oversight, and support India’s clean energy transition.

Exam Facts

• Full Form: Sustainable Harnessing and Advancement of Nuclear Energy for Transforming India (SHANTI) Act, 2025.
• Replaces:
  • Atomic Energy Act, 1962
  • Civil Liability for Nuclear Damage Act, 2010.
• Objective: Promote nuclear energy for electricity generation, healthcare, agriculture, industry, research, food preservation, water management, and environmental applications.
• Key Reform: Allows limited private sector participation in the civilian nuclear sector under strict government regulation.
• Regulatory Body: Grants statutory recognition to the Atomic Energy Regulatory Board (AERB).
• Long-term Target: Supports India’s goal of achieving 100 GW of nuclear power capacity by 2047.
• President’s Assent: 20 December 2025; published as Act No. 39 of 2025.
• Important Exam Fact: The Department of Atomic Energy (DAE) functions directly under the Prime Minister of India.

Answer: (B) Sonam Wangchuk & Gitanjali J. Angmo – Established to address the educational and developmental challenges of Ladakh.

Explanation

The Himalayan Institute of Alternatives, Ladakh (HIAL) was founded by Sonam Wangchuk and Gitanjali J. Angmo in 2017. It was established to create an alternative model of higher education that addresses the unique educational, environmental, and developmental challenges of Ladakh and other mountain regions through experiential and context-based learning.

Exam Facts

• Founded by: Sonam Wangchuk and Gitanjali J. Angmo.
• Established: 2017.
• Location: Phyang, Leh district, Ladakh (UT).
• HIAL Full Form: Himalayan Institute of Alternatives, Ladakh.
• Objective: Promote contextual, experiential, and transdisciplinary education for sustainable mountain development.
• Founder Sonam Wangchuk is also known for:
  • SECMOL (Students’ Educational and Cultural Movement of Ladakh).
  • Ice Stupa artificial glacier innovation.
  • Ramon Magsaysay Award (2018).
• Educational Philosophy: Shift from 3Rs (Reading, wRiting, aRithmetic) to 3Hs (Head, Heart, Hands), emphasizing learning by doing.
• Common Exam Fact: HIAL focuses on areas such as renewable energy, sustainable architecture, water management, organic farming, responsible tourism, and climate resilience for Himalayan communities.

Answer: (D) 2070

Explanation

India has committed to achieving Net-Zero carbon emissions by 2070. Prime Minister Narendra Modi announced this target at the 26th Conference of the Parties (COP26) held in Glasgow, United Kingdom, in November 2021. The target is a key component of India’s long-term strategy to combat climate change while pursuing sustainable development.

Exam Facts

• India’s Net-Zero Target: 2070.
• Announced by: Prime Minister Narendra Modi.
• Announcement Venue: COP26, Glasgow, United Kingdom.
• Announcement Date: 1 November 2021.
• Net Zero means balancing greenhouse gas emissions with their removal or absorption, resulting in net-zero emissions.
• India’s Panchamrit (Five Climate Commitments) announced at COP26:
  • 500 GW non-fossil fuel electricity capacity by 2030.
  • 50% of energy requirements from renewable sources by 2030.
  • Reduction of 1 billion tonnes in projected carbon emissions by 2030.
  • Reduce the emissions intensity of GDP by 45% from 2005 levels by 2030.
  • Achieve Net Zero by 2070.
• Paris Agreement: Adopted in 2015 under the UNFCCC to limit global warming.
• Common Exam Fact: COP30 is scheduled to be held in Belém, Brazil (2025), while COP31 is expected in 2026 (host to be finalized under the UNFCCC process).

Answer: (B) The Elephant Whisperers

Explanation

The Elephant Whisperers won the Academy Award (Oscar) for Best Documentary Short Film at the 95th Academy Awards (2023). Directed by Kartiki Gonsalves and produced by Guneet Monga, the documentary tells the story of a tribal couple, Bomman and Bellie, who care for an orphaned baby elephant named Raghu in Tamil Nadu.

Exam Facts

• Oscar Category: Best Documentary Short Film.
• Academy Awards: 95th Academy Awards (2023).
• Director: Kartiki Gonsalves.
• Producer: Guneet Monga Kapoor.
• Streaming Platform: Netflix.
• Location: Mudumalai Tiger Reserve, Tamil Nadu.
• Main Characters: Bomman, Bellie, and the elephant Raghu.
• Common Exam Fact: It was the first Indian documentary to win an Academy Award (Oscar).

Answer: (C) Russia

Explanation

Russia became the first country to officially recognize the Taliban government of Afghanistan on 3 July 2025, nearly four years after the Taliban returned to power in August 2021. Russia accepted the credentials of the Taliban’s ambassador, making it the first nation to grant formal diplomatic recognition to the Taliban administration.

Exam Facts

• First country to officially recognize the Taliban government: Russia.
• Date of recognition: 3 July 2025.
• Taliban returned to power: 15 August 2021, after the fall of Kabul.
• Capital of Afghanistan: Kabul.
• Currency: Afghani (AFN).
• Current de facto government: Islamic Emirate of Afghanistan (Taliban administration).
• Important Fact: Before formal recognition, countries such as China, Pakistan, UAE, and Uzbekistan had accepted Taliban-appointed ambassadors or maintained diplomatic engagement, but Russia was the first to officially recognize the Taliban government.
• Common Exam Fact: The UN has not officially recognized the Taliban government, and Afghanistan’s UN seat remains held by the representative of the former internationally recognized government.

Answer: (A) Cervical cancer in women

Explanation

The Human Papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine is primarily used to prevent cervical cancer, which is caused by persistent infection with high-risk HPV types. India launched a nationwide campaign to expand access to free HPV vaccination for eligible girls as part of its strategy to reduce the burden of cervical cancer through prevention and early intervention.

Exam Facts

• HPV Full Form: Human Papillomavirus.
• Primary Purpose: Prevention of cervical cancer and other HPV-related diseases.
• Main Cause of Cervical Cancer: Persistent infection with high-risk HPV types, especially HPV-16 and HPV-18.
• Target Group: Girls aged 9–14 years are the primary beneficiaries of HPV vaccination.
• Recommended by: World Health Organization (WHO).
• India’s Indigenous HPV Vaccine: CERVAVAC, developed by the Serum Institute of India (SII) in collaboration with the Department of Biotechnology (DBT) and Biotechnology Industry Research Assistance Council (BIRAC).
• Common Screening Test: Pap smear is used for early detection of cervical cancer.
• Common Exam Fact: Cervical cancer is one of the most common cancers among women in India, but it is largely preventable through vaccination and regular screening.

Answer: (D) Crimea has been taken over by Russian forces from Ukraine during the current war.

Explanation

Statement (D) is incorrect because Crimea was annexed by Russia in March 2014, following a disputed referendum, and not during the full-scale invasion that began in February 2022. The ongoing war started with Russia’s large-scale invasion of Ukraine on 24 February 2022, while Crimea had already been under Russian control for years.

Exam Facts

• Full-scale Russia–Ukraine War began: 24 February 2022.
• Crimea was annexed by Russia: March 2014, after the 2014 Crimean crisis.
• Donbas Region: Comprises Donetsk and Luhansk oblasts in eastern Ukraine.
• NATO: North Atlantic Treaty Organization, established in 1949; headquarters at Brussels, Belgium.
• European Union (EU): Political and economic union of 27 member states; headquarters of major institutions are in Brussels, Belgium.
• Capital of Ukraine: Kyiv.
• Capital of Russia: Moscow.
• Common Exam Fact: The International Criminal Court (ICC) issued an arrest warrant for Russian President Vladimir Putin in March 2023 over alleged war crimes related to the Ukraine conflict.

Answer: (B) Strict data localization regulations (DPDP Act, 2023)

Explanation

India’s data centre industry has grown rapidly due to increasing digitalization, cloud computing, AI adoption, and the need to store and process data within the country. The Digital Personal Data Protection (DPDP) Act, 2023 provides a legal framework for personal data protection and has strengthened demand for domestic data infrastructure. Data localization and regulatory compliance have encouraged companies to expand data centre capacity in India.

Exam Facts

• DPDP Act: Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023.
• Objective: Protect digital personal data while enabling lawful processing of such data.
• Ministry: Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY).
• Major drivers of India’s data centre growth: Cloud computing, AI, 5G, digital payments, OTT platforms, and e-commerce.
• Leading data centre hubs in India: Mumbai, Chennai, Hyderabad, Bengaluru, Delhi-NCR, and Pune.
• IndiaAI Mission: Approved in 2024 to strengthen AI infrastructure, including computing capacity.
• Important Distinction: The DPDP Act, 2023 does not mandate blanket data localization. It empowers the Central Government to restrict transfers of personal data to specified countries or territories, while encouraging robust data governance.
• Common Exam Fact: India is one of the world’s fastest-growing data centre markets, supported by rapid internet penetration and expanding digital public infrastructure.

Answer: (C) Booker Prize is for the books written in English while ‘International Booker Prize’ is for the books written in other languages and translated into English.

Explanation

The Booker Prize is awarded annually to the best original novel written in English and published in the UK or Ireland. The International Booker Prize is awarded to a book translated into English, with the prize money shared equally between the author and the translator. It recognizes outstanding works of fiction originally written in other languages.

Exam Facts

• Booker Prize: Awarded for the best original novel written in English.
• International Booker Prize: Awarded for the best translated work of fiction published in English.
• Prize Money (International Booker): Shared equally between the author and the translator.
• 2025 International Booker Prize: Banu Mushtaq (author) and Deepa Bhasthi (translator) for Heart Lamp.
• 2025 Booker Prize: David Szalay for Flesh.
• Booker Prize was first awarded in 1969.
• International Booker Prize has been awarded annually in its current translated-fiction format since 2016.
• Common Exam Fact: Geetanjali Shree’s Tomb of Sand, translated by Daisy Rockwell, won the International Booker Prize 2022, becoming the first Hindi novel to receive the award.

Answer: (B) Ease of doing business

Explanation

The Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill was introduced to promote ease of doing business by decriminalizing minor offences under several Central laws. It replaces imprisonment for many technical or procedural violations with monetary penalties, thereby reducing unnecessary compliance burdens and fostering trust-based governance.

Exam Facts

• Official Name: Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Act, 2023.
• Objective: Promote Ease of Doing Business (EoDB) through decriminalization of minor offences.
• Introduced in: Lok Sabha in 2022.
• Enacted in: 2023.
• Amends: 42 Central Acts across different sectors.
• Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
• Key Feature: Replaces imprisonment with monetary penalties for several minor, technical, and procedural offences.
• Common Exam Fact: The Act is based on the principle of “Minimum Government, Maximum Governance” and aims to improve India’s business and investment climate.

Answer: (A) Ministry of Commerce and Industry

Explanation

The Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC) is an initiative of the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. It aims to create an open, interoperable network for digital commerce, enabling buyers and sellers to transact across different e-commerce platforms without being tied to a single platform.

Exam Facts

• Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
• Implementing Department: Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT).
• Launched: Pilot phase in April 2022 in selected cities.
• Objective: Democratize e-commerce by creating an open and interoperable digital network.
• ONDC is not an e-commerce platform; it is a network based on open protocols connecting buyers, sellers, logistics providers, and payment services.
• Inspiration: Built on principles similar to Unified Payments Interface (UPI) for digital commerce.
• Implemented by: Open Network for Digital Commerce Ltd., a Section 8 (not-for-profit) company.
• Common Exam Fact: ONDC aims to increase the participation of MSMEs, small retailers, startups, and local businesses in digital commerce by reducing dependence on large e-commerce platforms.

Answer: (A) Interest payments

Explanation

In the Union Budget 2023–24, interest payments accounted for the largest share of the Central Government’s expenditure, reflecting the cost of servicing public debt. A significant portion of government revenue is spent on paying interest on past borrowings before funds are allocated to development and welfare schemes.

Exam Facts

• Union Budget 2023–24 was presented by Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman on 1 February 2023.
• Largest expenditure item: Interest Payments (around 20% of total expenditure).
• Second largest component: States’ share of taxes and duties (around 18%).
• Total Expenditure (Budget Estimates 2023–24): ₹45.03 lakh crore.
• Capital Expenditure (CapEx): Increased by 33% to ₹10 lakh crore (about 3.3% of GDP).
• Fiscal Deficit Target (2023–24): 5.9% of GDP.
• Revenue Expenditure: Spending on salaries, pensions, subsidies, and interest payments.

Answer: (C) Mumbai

Explanation

The Khadi Fest-2022 Exhibition was hosted in Mumbai and inaugurated on 3 October 2022 by Union MSME Minister Narayan Rane. It was organized by the Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC) to promote Khadi and village industry products on the occasion of Gandhi Jayanti.

Exam Facts

• Host City: Mumbai.
• Organiser: Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC).
• Inaugurated by: Narayan Rane, Union Minister for MSME.
• Occasion: Gandhi Jayanti (2 October).
• Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME).
• KVIC Established: 1957 under the Khadi and Village Industries Commission Act, 1956.
• KVIC Headquarters: Mumbai, Maharashtra.
• Common Exam Fact: Khadi became the national fabric of India in 2022 through a notification by the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises.

Answer: (C) Sri Lanka

Explanation

Sri Lanka celebrated its 75th Independence Day on 4 February 2023, commemorating its independence from British rule on 4 February 1948. The celebrations were held in Colombo with the theme “Namo Namo Matha – A Step Towards a Century.”

Exam Facts

• Country: Sri Lanka.
• Independence Day: 4 February 1948.
• 75th Independence Anniversary: 4 February 2023.
• Capital: Sri Jayawardenepura Kotte (Legislative); Colombo (Executive & Commercial).
• Currency: Sri Lankan Rupee (LKR).
• Official Languages: Sinhala and Tamil.
• Palk Strait separates India and Sri Lanka.
• Common Exam Fact: India and Sri Lanka are connected by the Rama Setu (Adam’s Bridge), a chain of limestone shoals between Rameswaram (India) and Mannar Island (Sri Lanka).

Answer: (B) China

Explanation

China developed the “Artificial Moon” project at Xuzhou to simulate low-gravity (Moon-like) conditions on Earth for scientific research. The facility uses a powerful magnetic levitation system to create an environment that mimics the Moon’s gravity, helping researchers test technologies and conduct experiments for future lunar missions.

Exam Facts

• Country: China.
• Location: Xuzhou, Jiangsu Province.
• Purpose: Simulate the Moon’s low-gravity environment for scientific experiments.
• Technology Used: Powerful magnetic levitation to mimic lunar gravity.
• Applications: Testing equipment, materials, and technologies for future lunar exploration.
• China’s Lunar Mission Programme: Chang’e Programme, named after the Chinese Moon goddess.
• Recent Achievements: Chang’e-5 (2020) returned lunar samples; Chang’e-6 (2024) became the first mission to return samples from the Moon’s far side.
• Common Exam Fact: China’s space agency is the China National Space Administration (CNSA).

Answer: (A) Food

Explanation

In the Union Budget 2023–24, food subsidy accounted for the largest share of the Central Government’s subsidy expenditure. The subsidy is mainly provided under the National Food Security Act (NFSA), 2013, through the Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana (PMGKAY), ensuring free foodgrains to eligible beneficiaries.

Exam Facts

• Largest Central Government subsidy (2023–24): Food Subsidy.
• Implementing Agency: Food Corporation of India (FCI).
• Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution.
• National Food Security Act (NFSA): Enacted in 2013.
• PMGKAY: From 1 January 2023, eligible beneficiaries receive 5 kg of foodgrains per person per month free of cost under the NFSA.
• Major Subsidies in the Union Budget: Food, Fertilizer, and Petroleum.
• Important Distinction: Interest payments are a part of government expenditure, not subsidies.
• Common Exam Fact: The Food Corporation of India (FCI) was established in 1965 and is responsible for procurement, storage, transportation, and distribution of foodgrains in India.

Answer: (D) Peru

Explanation

Ardeshir B. K. Dubash, the former Honorary Consul of Peru in Mumbai, was conferred the Order of Merit in the Diplomatic Service of Peru “José Gregorio Paz Soldán”, the highest diplomatic honour awarded by the Government of Peru. He received the award in recognition of his nearly five decades of service in strengthening diplomatic, commercial, and cultural relations between India and Peru.

Exam Facts

• Awarding Country: Peru.
• Award Name: Order of Merit in the Diplomatic Service of Peru “José Gregorio Paz Soldán”.
• Awarded to: Ardeshir B. K. Dubash, former Honorary Consul of Peru in Mumbai.
• Conferred by: Ministry of Foreign Affairs of Peru through the Ambassador of Peru to India, Carlos R. Polo.
• Honorary Consul Since: 13 August 1973.
• The Order of Merit: Instituted in 2004 and named after José Gregorio Paz Soldán, regarded as the founder of Peru’s diplomatic service.
• Capital of Peru: Lima.
• Currency of Peru: Peruvian Sol (PEN).

Answer: (C) Lionel Messi

Explanation

Lionel Messi was named the BBC Sports Personality’s World Sport Star of the Year 2022 after leading Argentina to victory in the 2022 FIFA World Cup in Qatar. He also won the Golden Ball as the tournament’s best player after scoring 7 goals and inspiring Argentina to their first World Cup title since 1986.

Exam Facts

• Award: BBC Sports Personality’s World Sport Star of the Year 2022.
• Winner: Lionel Messi (Argentina).
• Reason: Led Argentina to victory in the 2022 FIFA World Cup.
• FIFA World Cup 2022 Host: Qatar.
• World Cup Final: Argentina defeated France on penalties after a 3–3 draw.
• Golden Ball (Best Player): Lionel Messi.
• Golden Boot (Top Scorer): Kylian Mbappé (France) – 8 goals.
• Golden Glove (Best Goalkeeper): Emiliano Martínez (Argentina).

Answer: (A) Ministry of Education

Explanation

NEAT (National Educational Alliance for Technology) 3.0 is an initiative of the Ministry of Education to provide AI-enabled and technology-based learning solutions to students. It connects ed-tech companies with learners through a single digital platform, with a special focus on improving access to quality education for economically disadvantaged students.

Exam Facts

• NEAT Full Form: National Educational Alliance for Technology.
• Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Education (MoE).
• Implementing Agency: All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE).
• Objective: Provide AI-based personalized learning and skill development through ed-tech solutions.
• Target Beneficiaries: Students of higher education, especially those from economically weaker sections (EWS).
• Key Feature: Offers free or subsidized courses through partnerships with private ed-tech companies.
• NEAT 3.0: An upgraded version with improved digital learning features, wider course offerings, and enhanced student accessibility.
• Common Exam Fact: AICTE is a statutory body established under the AICTE Act, 1987, functioning under the Ministry of Education.

Answer: (C) Department of Data Science

Explanation

In 2022, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) created the Department of Data Science and Analytics (DDSA) to strengthen data-driven supervision, policy formulation, and regulatory decision-making. The department focuses on the use of big data, advanced analytics, and artificial intelligence in the central bank’s operations.

Exam Facts

• Department Created: Department of Data Science and Analytics (DDSA).
• Created by: Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
• Year: 2022.
• Objective: Promote data analytics, Artificial Intelligence (AI), Machine Learning (ML), and big data for better regulation and policy-making.
• RBI Established: 1 April 1935 under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.
• RBI Headquarters: Mumbai, Maharashtra.
• Current RBI Governor (2026): Sanjay Malhotra.
• Common Exam Fact: The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) of the RBI consists of 6 members—3 from the RBI and 3 appointed by the Central Government.

Answer: (C) Australia

Explanation

India and Australia signed the India–Australia Economic Cooperation and Trade Agreement (IndAus ECTA) on 2 April 2022. The agreement aims to boost bilateral trade, investment, services, and economic cooperation by reducing or eliminating tariffs on a wide range of goods and facilitating market access for businesses.

Exam Facts

• Partner Country: Australia.
• Agreement Name: India–Australia Economic Cooperation and Trade Agreement (IndAus ECTA).
• Signed on: 2 April 2022.
• Came into force: 29 December 2022.
• India’s First Trade Agreement: With a developed country in over a decade.
• Key Benefit: Australia provides duty-free access to about 96% of Indian exports, covering sectors such as textiles, engineering goods, leather, gems and jewellery, and pharmaceuticals.
• Follow-up Agreement: India and Australia concluded the Comprehensive Economic Cooperation Agreement (CECA) negotiations in 2025, expanding the scope beyond ECTA.
• Common Exam Fact: Australia’s capital is Canberra, currency is the Australian Dollar (AUD), and both India and Australia are members of the Quad (India, Australia, Japan, and the United States).

Answer: (B) New Delhi

Explanation

The Government of the National Capital Territory (NCT) of Delhi launched a 15-point Winter Action Plan to reduce air pollution during the winter months. The plan focuses on controlling major pollution sources such as vehicular emissions, dust pollution, stubble burning, industrial emissions, and open waste burning.

Exam Facts

• Launched by: Government of NCT of Delhi.
• Objective: Control winter air pollution and improve air quality in Delhi.
• Key Focus Areas: Dust control, vehicular emissions, industrial pollution, stubble burning, waste burning, and traffic congestion.
• Air Quality Index (AQI): Released by the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB).
• AQI Categories:
  • Good: 0–50
  • Satisfactory: 51–100
  • Moderate: 101–200
  • Poor: 201–300
  • Very Poor: 301–400
  • Severe: 401–500
• CPCB: Established in 1974 under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974.
• CAQM: Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM) is responsible for coordinating air pollution control in Delhi-NCR.
• Common Exam Fact: GRAP (Graded Response Action Plan) is implemented in Delhi-NCR to tackle worsening air pollution based on AQI levels.

Answer: (A) Justice G. Rohini

Explanation

The Commission for the Sub-Categorization of Other Backward Classes (OBCs) is headed by Justice G. Rohini, a former Chief Justice of the Delhi High Court. The Commission was constituted by the Central Government to examine the distribution of reservation benefits among OBC communities and recommend a fairer allocation through sub-categorization.

Exam Facts

• Head of the Commission: Justice G. Rohini.
• Constituted: 2 October 2017.
• Constituted by: Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.
• Purpose: To recommend sub-categorization of OBCs so that reservation benefits are distributed more equitably among different OBC communities.
• Also known as: Rohini Commission.
• Constitutional Status of NCBC: The National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC) became a constitutional body through the 102nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 2018.
• Constitutional Provision: Article 338B deals with the National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC).
• Common Exam Fact: Article 342A empowers the President to notify the Central List of Socially and Educationally Backward Classes (SEBCs/OBCs), subject to Parliament’s law.

Answer: (B) UNEP (United Nations Environment Programme)

Explanation

The Adaptation Gap Report 2022 was released by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP). The report assesses global progress in climate change adaptation and highlights the widening gap between the need for adaptation measures and the financial resources available, especially in developing countries.

Exam Facts

• Released by: United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).
• Report Name: Adaptation Gap Report 2022.
• Theme (2022): “Too Little, Too Slow – Climate Adaptation Failure Puts World at Risk.”
• Objective: Assess global progress, planning, implementation, and financing for climate change adaptation.
• UNEP Headquarters: Nairobi, Kenya.
• UNEP Established: 1972, following the Stockholm Conference on the Human Environment.
• Difference between Adaptation and Mitigation:
  • Adaptation: Adjusting to the impacts of climate change.
  • Mitigation: Reducing greenhouse gas emissions to limit climate change.
• Common Exam Fact: UNEP also publishes the Emissions Gap Report, another important report frequently asked in UPSC, WBCS, and other competitive examinations.

Answer: (B) Scotland

Explanation

The Scottish Parliament passed the Gender Recognition Reform (Scotland) Bill in December 2022. The Bill aimed to simplify the legal process for obtaining a Gender Recognition Certificate (GRC) by introducing a system of self-declaration and reducing the minimum age from 18 to 16 years. However, the UK Government blocked the Bill in January 2023 using Section 35 of the Scotland Act, 1998, preventing it from becoming law.

Exam Facts

• Country/Region: Scotland (United Kingdom).
• Passed by: Scottish Parliament.
• Passed in: December 2022.
• Purpose: Simplify the process of obtaining a Gender Recognition Certificate (GRC).
• Key Provision: Proposed reducing the minimum age for legal gender recognition from 18 years to 16 years.
• Blocked by: UK Government under Section 35 of the Scotland Act, 1998.
• Gender Recognition Act: The existing Gender Recognition Act, 2004 continues to govern legal gender recognition across the UK.
• Common Exam Fact: Edinburgh is the capital of Scotland, while London is the capital of the United Kingdom.

Answer: (B) Income Tax

Explanation

In 2022–23 (Revised Estimates) and reflected in the Union Budget 2023–24, Income Tax became the largest source of the Central Government’s tax revenue, surpassing Corporate Tax. This was mainly due to higher personal income tax collections driven by improved tax compliance, economic recovery, and growth in employment and incomes.

Exam Facts

• Largest source of tax revenue (2022–23): Income Tax.
• Second largest source: Corporate Tax.
• GST in India: Introduced on 1 July 2017.
• GST Constitutional Amendment: 101st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2016.
• Income Tax is a: Direct Tax.
• GST and Customs Duty are: Indirect Taxes.
• Union Budget 2023–24: Presented by Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman on 1 February 2023.
• Common Exam Fact: The Goods and Services Tax (GST) Council is constituted under Article 279A of the Constitution and is chaired by the Union Finance Minister.

Answer: (C) Russia

Explanation

The BMPT “Terminator” is a Russian armored fighting vehicle designed to provide fire support to main battle tanks (MBTs), especially in urban combat and against anti-tank infantry. Developed by Uralvagonzavod, it is built on the chassis of the T-72/T-90 tank and is equipped with multiple weapons to engage diverse targets.

Exam Facts

• Country: Russia.
• BMPT Full Form: Boyevaya Mashina Podderzhki Tankov (Tank Support Fighting Vehicle).
• Nickname: Terminator.
• Manufacturer: Uralvagonzavod.
• Primary Role: Provide fire support to main battle tanks (MBTs) in urban and high-threat environments.
• Main Armament: Two 30 mm autocannons, anti-tank guided missiles (ATGMs), machine gun, and automatic grenade launchers (variant-dependent).
• Base Chassis: Derived from the T-72/T-90 main battle tank platform.
• Common Exam Fact: The T-90 Bhishma is the main battle tank of the Indian Army, produced under license at the Heavy Vehicles Factory (HVF), Avadi, Tamil Nadu.

Answer: (C) Nepal

Explanation

Nepal passed its first Citizenship Amendment Bill in 2023 after years of political debate. The amendment aimed to address long-pending issues related to the acquisition of citizenship, particularly for children born to Nepali citizens and certain foreign spouses. The Bill became law after receiving Presidential assent in May 2023.

Exam Facts

• Country: Nepal.
• Citizenship Amendment Bill: Passed in 2023.
• Presidential Assent: 31 May 2023 by President Ram Chandra Paudel.
• Capital: Kathmandu.
• Currency: Nepalese Rupee (NPR).
• Constitution of Nepal: Adopted on 20 September 2015.
• Federal Structure: Nepal is a Federal Democratic Republic with 7 provinces.
• Common Exam Fact: Nepal shares an open international border with India and is a member of SAARC and BIMSTEC.

Answer: (A) P. V. Sindhu

Explanation

Indian badminton star P. V. Sindhu was appointed as the ‘Friendship Ambassador’ by Switzerland Tourism in 2022. The partnership aimed to promote Switzerland as a preferred travel destination among Indian tourists and strengthen tourism ties between the two countries.

Exam Facts

• Friendship Ambassador: P. V. Sindhu.
• Appointed by: Switzerland Tourism.
• Year: 2022.
• Purpose: Promote Swiss tourism and enhance tourism cooperation with India.
• P. V. Sindhu’s Sport: Badminton.
• Olympic Medals: Silver (Rio 2016) and Bronze (Tokyo 2020).
• World Championship: BWF World Champion (2019) – first Indian to win the title.
• Common Exam Fact: Capital of Switzerland – Bern; Currency – Swiss Franc (CHF); Headquarters of the International Olympic Committee (IOC) – Lausanne, Switzerland.

Answer: (C) Madhya Pradesh

Explanation

Madhya Pradesh declared Malakhamb as its State Sport in 2023 to promote India’s indigenous sporting heritage. Malakhamb is a traditional Indian sport in which athletes perform gymnastic and yogic postures on a wooden pole, rope, or cane.

Exam Facts

• State: Madhya Pradesh.
• State Sport Declared: Malakhamb (2023).
• Origin: Traditionally associated with Maharashtra, with roots dating back several centuries.
• Meaning: Malla = Wrestler, Khamb = Pole.
• Types of Malakhamb: Pole Malakhamb, Rope Malakhamb, and Hanging Malakhamb.
• Purpose: Develops strength, flexibility, balance, agility, and endurance.
• Capital of Madhya Pradesh: Bhopal.
• Common Exam Fact: Madhya Pradesh is known as the “Heart of India” and has the largest forest area among Indian states (as per the India State of Forest Report).

Answer: (A) UNDP (United Nations Development Programme)

Explanation

The North Eastern Region (NER) District SDG Index was released by NITI Aayog in collaboration with the Ministry of Development of North Eastern Region (MDoNER) and with technical support from the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP). The Index measures the progress of districts in the North-East towards achieving the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs).

Exam Facts

• Released by: NITI Aayog.
• Technical Support: United Nations Development Programme (UNDP).
• Partner Ministry: Ministry of Development of North Eastern Region (MDoNER).
• Objective: Assess district-level progress towards the 17 Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs).
• SDGs Adopted by the UN: 2015 under the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development.
• Total SDGs: 17 Goals and 169 Targets.
• UNDP Headquarters: New York, USA.
• Common Exam Fact: NITI Aayog was established on 1 January 2015, replacing the Planning Commission.

Answer: (B) New Zealand

Explanation

Pitt Island is part of the Chatham Islands, located about 800 km east of New Zealand’s South Island. It was in the news after hundreds of pilot whales were stranded and died near the island, a phenomenon that frequently occurs in New Zealand due to its coastal geography and whale migration patterns.

Exam Facts

• Country: New Zealand.
• Pitt Island is part of the Chatham Islands archipelago.
• Chatham Islands Location: Approximately 800 km east of New Zealand’s South Island.
• Pilot Whale: Belongs to the dolphin family (Delphinidae).
• Scientific Names:
  • Long-finned Pilot Whale: Globicephala melas
  • Short-finned Pilot Whale: Globicephala macrorhynchus
• Reason for Frequent Strandings: Shallow coastlines, tidal patterns, navigational errors, and strong social bonding among pilot whales.
• Capital of New Zealand: Wellington.
• Common Exam Fact: New Zealand consists of North Island and South Island, with Auckland being its largest city though Wellington is the capital.

Answer: (A) Manoj Soni (Correct as per the time when this current affairs question was framed.)

Explanation

At the time this question was prepared (based on 2023 current affairs), Dr. Manoj Soni was serving as the Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC). He took oath as the Chairman on 16 May 2023, after earlier discharging the duties of the Chairman from April 2022.

Exam Facts

• Current UPSC Chairman (2026): Dr. Ajay Kumar.
• Previous Chairman: Dr. Manoj Soni (16 May 2023 – 2024).
• UPSC: A Constitutional Body established under Articles 315–323 of the Constitution of India.
• Appointment: The Chairman and Members are appointed by the President of India under Article 316.
• Tenure: 6 years or until attaining the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
• Functions: Conducts the Civil Services Examination (CSE), Engineering Services Examination (ESE), Combined Defence Services (CDS), NDA, and other recruitment examinations.
• UPSC Foundation Day: 1 October (the Public Service Commission was established on 1 October 1926).
• Common Exam Fact: The first Chairman of UPSC after the Constitution came into force was R. N. Banerjee.

Answer: (A) Campbell Wilson

Explanation

Campbell Wilson, a former executive of Singapore Airlines Group and founding CEO of Scoot, was appointed Chief Executive Officer (CEO) and Managing Director (MD) of Air India in May 2022 after the airline’s acquisition by the Tata Group. He officially assumed office on 25 July 2022 and led Air India’s transformation programme.

Exam Facts

• CEO & MD (appointed in 2022): Campbell Wilson.
• Assumed Office: 25 July 2022.
• Air India Owner: Tata Group (acquired from the Government of India in January 2022).
• Chairman of Air India: N. Chandrasekaran.
• Headquarters: Gurugram, Haryana.
• Founded: 1932 as Tata Airlines by J. R. D. Tata.
• Nationalised: 1953 under the Air Corporations Act, 1953.
• Common Exam Fact: Air India is India’s flag carrier and a member of the Star Alliance.

Answer: (B) General Manoj Pande

Explanation

At the time this question was prepared (2023–24), General Manoj Pande was serving as the Chief of the Army Staff (COAS) of the Indian Army. He assumed office on 30 April 2022 and was the first officer from the Corps of Engineers to become the Army Chief. He served until 30 June 2024, when he was succeeded by General Upendra Dwivedi.

Exam Facts

• Correct Answer (for this PYQ): General Manoj Pande.
• Current COAS (2026): General Dhiraj Seth (appointed after General Upendra Dwivedi’s retirement).
• General Upendra Dwivedi became the 30th Chief of the Army Staff on 30 June 2024.
• General Manoj Pande was the 29th Chief of the Army Staff and the first COAS from the Corps of Engineers.
• Appointment: The Chief of the Army Staff is appointed by the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC).
• Retirement Age of COAS: 62 years or as prescribed by service rules.
• Indian Army Day: 15 January, commemorating Field Marshal K. M. Cariappa taking over as the first Indian Commander-in-Chief in 1949.
• Common Exam Fact: Field Marshal is the highest rank in the Indian Army; only Sam Manekshaw and K. M. Cariappa have received this rank.

Answer: (C) 101st

Explanation

Satyajit Ray was born on 2 May 1921 in Kolkata. Therefore, 2022 marked his 101st birth anniversary. The year witnessed several commemorative events celebrating his contributions to Indian and world cinema.

Exam Facts

• Born: 2 May 1921, Kolkata (then Calcutta).
• Died: 23 April 1992.
• First Film: Pather Panchali (1955) – the first part of the Apu Trilogy.
• Apu Trilogy: Pather Panchali (1955), Aparajito (1956), Apur Sansar (1959).
• Highest Civilian Award: Bharat Ratna (1992).
• Honorary Academy Award (Oscar): Received in 1992 for Lifetime Achievement.
• Notable Character Created: Feluda, the famous Bengali detective.
• Common Exam Fact: Satyajit Ray received 32 National Film Awards, the highest by any Indian filmmaker, and was awarded the Legion of Honour by France in 1987.

Answer: (B) Rajiv Kumar

Explanation

Rajiv Kumar was appointed as the 25th Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) of India and assumed office on 15 May 2022, succeeding Sushil Chandra. During his tenure, the Election Commission conducted several important Assembly elections and the 2024 General Election.

Exam Facts

• Correct Answer (for this PYQ): Rajiv Kumar.
• Current Chief Election Commissioner (2026): Gyanesh Kumar.
• Rajiv Kumar assumed office: 15 May 2022.
• Constitutional Provision: Article 324 provides for the Election Commission of India (ECI).
• Appointment: The Chief Election Commissioner and Election Commissioners are appointed by the President of India.
• Election Commission of India Established: 25 January 1950.
• National Voters’ Day: Celebrated every year on 25 January.
• Common Exam Fact: The first Chief Election Commissioner of India was Sukumar Sen, who supervised India’s first General Election (1951–52).

Answer: (C) Rohit Sharma

Explanation

Rohit Sharma became the second Indian cricketer to score 10,000 runs in T20 cricket in 2022. He achieved the milestone after Virat Kohli, who was the first Indian to cross the 10,000-run mark in the format.

Exam Facts

• Correct Answer: Rohit Sharma.
• First Indian to score 10,000 T20 runs: Virat Kohli.
• Rohit Sharma achieved the milestone: 2022.
• Format: Includes domestic T20s, franchise leagues (IPL), and international T20 matches.
• Rohit Sharma’s Nickname: Hitman.
• Rohit Sharma: Only player to score three ODI double centuries (200, 209, 264).
• T20I Record: Rohit Sharma was the first player to score five T20 International centuries (later extended his record).
• Common Exam Fact: Virat Kohli is the highest run-scorer in T20 Internationals and was the Player of the Tournament in the 2022 ICC Men’s T20 World Cup.

Answer: (C) Ravi Kumar Dahiya

Explanation

Ravi Kumar Dahiya won India’s only gold medal at the 2022 Asian Wrestling Championships held in Ulaanbaatar, Mongolia. He claimed the 57 kg freestyle title by defeating Nurislam Sanayev of Kazakhstan in the final.

Exam Facts

• Gold Medal Winner (India): Ravi Kumar Dahiya.
• Event: Asian Wrestling Championships 2022.
• Venue: Ulaanbaatar, Mongolia.
• Category: 57 kg Freestyle.
• Final Opponent: Nurislam Sanayev (Kazakhstan).
• Ravi Kumar Dahiya: Won Silver Medal in the 57 kg freestyle at the Tokyo Olympics 2020 (held in 2021).
• Wrestling Governing Body (India): Wrestling Federation of India (WFI).
• Common Exam Fact: Wrestling is one of India’s most successful sports in the Olympics, Commonwealth Games, and Asian Games.

Answer: (A) Manik Saha

Explanation

Dr. Manik Saha was appointed as the Chief Minister of Tripura in May 2022, succeeding Biplab Kumar Deb. After the 2023 Tripura Assembly elections, he continued as the Chief Minister following the BJP-led alliance’s victory.

Exam Facts

• Correct Answer: Dr. Manik Saha.
• First Appointed as CM: 15 May 2022.
• Succeeded: Biplab Kumar Deb.
• Political Party: Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP).
• Capital of Tripura: Agartala.
• Governor of Tripura (2026): N. Indrasena Reddy.
• Legislative Assembly Strength: 60 seats.
• Common Exam Fact: Tripura shares a long international border with Bangladesh (about 856 km), making it one of the Indian states with the highest proportion of its border adjoining Bangladesh.

Answer: (B) Czech Republic

Explanation

Following the suspension of Russia from the United Nations Human Rights Council (UNHRC) in April 2022, the UN General Assembly elected the Czech Republic to fill the vacant seat for the remainder of Russia’s term. The decision came in response to concerns over human rights violations during the Russia–Ukraine conflict.

Exam Facts

• Correct Answer: Czech Republic.
• Russia Suspended from UNHRC: 7 April 2022.
• Replacement Country: Czech Republic.
• UN Human Rights Council (UNHRC): Consists of 47 member states.
• Headquarters of UNHRC: Geneva, Switzerland.
• Members are elected by: UN General Assembly for a 3-year term.
• Established: 2006, replacing the UN Commission on Human Rights.
• Common Exam Fact: The Office of the United Nations High Commissioner for Human Rights (OHCHR) is also headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland.

Answer: (C) Vivek Agnihotri

Explanation

The Kashmir Files is a 2022 Hindi-language film directed by Vivek Ranjan Agnihotri. The film depicts the exodus of Kashmiri Pandits from the Kashmir Valley during the insurgency of the late 1980s and early 1990s. It received significant public attention and became one of the highest-grossing Hindi films of 2022.

Exam Facts

• Director: Vivek Ranjan Agnihotri.
• Release Year: 2022.
• Producer: Abhishek Agarwal.
• Lead Cast: Anupam Kher, Mithun Chakraborty, Darshan Kumaar, Pallavi Joshi.
• Theme: Based on the 1990 exodus of Kashmiri Pandits from the Kashmir Valley.
• Language: Hindi.
• Common Exam Fact: Kashmir Files won the Nargis Dutt Award for Best Feature Film on National Integration at the 69th National Film Awards (announced in 2023).
• Common Exam Fact: The 69th National Film Awards honoured films certified by the Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC) during the year 2022.

Answer: (B) Honduras

Explanation

Xiomara Castro became the first woman President of Honduras after winning the 2021 presidential election. She took office on 27 January 2022, ending more than a decade of rule by the National Party and marking a historic milestone in the country’s political history.

Exam Facts

• Country: Honduras.
• First Female President: Xiomara Castro.
• Assumed Office: 27 January 2022.
• Political Party: LIBRE (Liberty and Refoundation Party).
• Capital of Honduras: Tegucigalpa.
• Currency: Honduran Lempira (HNL).
• Continent: North America (Central America).
• Common Exam Fact: Honduras is a member of the United Nations (UN), Organization of American States (OAS), and the Central American Integration System (SICA).

Answer: (B) Bangladesh

Explanation

The 5th BIMSTEC Summit was hosted by Bangladesh on 30 March 2022 in a virtual format, with Dhaka serving as the host city. During the summit, the BIMSTEC Charter was adopted, giving the organization a formal legal and institutional framework.

Exam Facts

• Host Country: Bangladesh.
• Date: 30 March 2022.
• Host City: Dhaka (Summit held virtually).
• Theme: “Towards a Resilient Region, Prosperous Economies, Healthy Peoples.”
• Major Outcome: Adoption of the BIMSTEC Charter.
• BIMSTEC Full Form: Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation.
• Established: 6 June 1997 through the Bangkok Declaration.
• Member Countries (7): Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Myanmar, Nepal, Sri Lanka, and Thailand.
• Permanent Secretariat: Dhaka, Bangladesh.
• Current Secretary-General (2026): Indra Mani Pandey (India).

Answer: (B) Shinzo Abe

Explanation

Former Japanese Prime Minister Shinzo Abe was posthumously conferred the Netaji Award 2022 by the Netaji Research Bureau (NRB), Kolkata. The award recognized his contribution to strengthening India–Japan relations and promoting the vision of a free and open Indo-Pacific.

Exam Facts

• Awardee: Shinzo Abe, former Prime Minister of Japan.
• Award: Netaji Award 2022.
• Conferred by: Netaji Research Bureau (NRB), Kolkata.
• Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose’s Birth Anniversary: 23 January, celebrated as Parakram Diwas in India.
• Netaji Research Bureau: Founded in 1957 by Dr. Sisir Kumar Bose.
• Shinzo Abe’s Tenure as PM: 2006–07 and 2012–20 (Japan’s longest-serving Prime Minister).
• Major Contribution: Played a key role in strengthening the India–Japan Special Strategic and Global Partnership and advancing the Quad framework.
• Common Exam Fact: Shinzo Abe was assassinated on 8 July 2022 while campaigning in Nara, Japan.

Answer: (C) Ranil Wickremesinghe

Explanation

Ranil Wickremesinghe was appointed as the Prime Minister of Sri Lanka on 12 May 2022 during the country’s severe economic and political crisis. He succeeded Mahinda Rajapaksa, who resigned following widespread anti-government protests. Later, in July 2022, Wickremesinghe became the President of Sri Lanka after Gotabaya Rajapaksa resigned.

Exam Facts

• Correct Answer: Ranil Wickremesinghe.
• Appointed as Prime Minister: 12 May 2022.
• Succeeded: Mahinda Rajapaksa.
• Became President of Sri Lanka: 21 July 2022.
• Cause of Political Crisis: Severe economic crisis, foreign exchange shortage, inflation, and public protests.
• Capital of Sri Lanka: Sri Jayawardenepura Kotte (legislative); Colombo (commercial).
• Currency: Sri Lankan Rupee (LKR).
• Common Exam Fact: Sri Lanka is a founding member of SAARC and is separated from India by the Palk Strait and the Gulf of Mannar.

Answer: (C) Taranjit Singh Sandhu

Explanation

Taranjit Singh Sandhu, a senior Indian Foreign Service (IFS) officer of the 1988 batch, served as the Ambassador of India to the United States from February 2020 to January 2024. He played a key role in strengthening the India–US Comprehensive Global Strategic Partnership, including cooperation in defence, technology, trade, and the Quad.

Exam Facts

• Correct Answer: Taranjit Singh Sandhu.
• IFS Batch: 1988.
• Served as Ambassador to the U.S.: 2020–2024.
• Capital of the USA: Washington, D.C.
• Current Indian Ambassador to the USA (2026): Vinay Mohan Kwatra.
• Major India–US Initiative: Comprehensive Global Strategic Partnership.
• Quad Members: India, USA, Japan, and Australia.
• Common Exam Fact: The Embassy of India in the United States is located in Washington, D.C., while the Consulate General of India has offices in cities including New York, San Francisco, Chicago, Houston, Seattle, and Atlanta.

Answer: (D) Hungary

Explanation

Viktor Orbán, leader of the Fidesz party, secured his fourth consecutive term as the Prime Minister of Hungary after winning the 2022 Hungarian parliamentary election. His alliance won a two-thirds majority in Parliament, extending his long tenure in office.

Exam Facts

• Correct Answer: Hungary.
• Leader: Viktor Orbán.
• Political Party: Fidesz – Hungarian Civic Alliance.
• Election Year: 2022.
• Capital of Hungary: Budapest.
• Currency: Hungarian Forint (HUF).
• Hungary is a member of: European Union (EU), NATO, United Nations, and the OECD.
• Common Exam Fact: Hungary is a landlocked country in Central Europe and shares borders with Austria, Slovakia, Ukraine, Romania, Serbia, Croatia, and Slovenia.

Answer: (D) Jane Campion

Explanation

Jane Campion won the Academy Award for Best Director at the 94th Academy Awards (Oscars 2022) for her film The Power of the Dog. She became the third woman in Oscar history to win the Best Director award.

Exam Facts

• Best Director (Oscars 2022): Jane Campion.
• Award-winning Film: The Power of the Dog.
• Event: 94th Academy Awards.
• Date of Ceremony: 27 March 2022.
• Venue: Dolby Theatre, Los Angeles, California, USA.
• Best Picture (Oscars 2022): CODA.
• Best Actor: Will Smith (King Richard).
• Best Actress: Jessica Chastain (The Eyes of Tammy Faye).
• Common Exam Fact: Jane Campion is the first woman to receive two Best Director nominations at the Academy Awards (The Piano in 1994 and The Power of the Dog in 2022).

Answer: (A) Namita Gokhale

Explanation

Namita Gokhale won the Sahitya Akademi Award 2021 in the English category for her novel Things to Leave Behind. The award was announced by the Sahitya Akademi on 30 December 2021.

Exam Facts

• Awardee (English): Namita Gokhale.
• Award-winning Book: Things to Leave Behind (Novel).
• Awarding Body: Sahitya Akademi (India’s National Academy of Letters).
• Sahitya Akademi Established: 1954.
• Headquarters: New Delhi.
• Sahitya Akademi Awards are presented annually for outstanding literary works in 24 recognized languages.
• Highest Literary Fellowship: Sahitya Akademi Fellowship (Akademi Ratna).
• Common Exam Fact: The Jnanpith Award is India’s highest literary award, while the Sahitya Akademi Award is one of the country’s most prestigious annual literary honours.

Answer: (B) India

Explanation

India won the Thomas Cup 2022 by defeating 14-time champions Indonesia 3–0 in the final held in Bangkok, Thailand. It was India’s first-ever Thomas Cup title, marking a historic achievement in Indian badminton.

Exam Facts

• Winner: India.
• Runner-up: Indonesia.
• Final Score: India 3–0 Indonesia.
• Venue: Bangkok, Thailand.
• Year: 2022.
• Thomas Cup: The World Men’s Team Badminton Championship.
• Organised by: Badminton World Federation (BWF).
• Common Exam Fact: The Uber Cup is the World Women’s Team Badminton Championship, while the Sudirman Cup is the World Mixed Team Badminton Championship.

Answer: (A) Victoria (Correct as per the time when this question was framed.)

Note for current exams: This question is now outdated. Although Victoria (Australia) was originally selected to host the 2026 Commonwealth Games in 2022, the state withdrew in 2023 due to escalating costs. The 2026 Commonwealth Games will now be held in Glasgow, Scotland.

Explanation

In April 2022, the Australian state of Victoria was awarded the hosting rights for the 2026 Commonwealth Games, with events planned across multiple regional cities such as Geelong, Ballarat, Bendigo, and Gippsland. However, in July 2023, Victoria withdrew as host because of rising projected costs, and Glasgow was later confirmed as the replacement host.

Exam Facts

• Correct Answer (for this PYQ): Victoria (Australia).
• Host announced: April 2022.
• Victoria withdrew as host: 18 July 2023 due to cost overruns.
• Current Host of 2026 Commonwealth Games: Glasgow, Scotland.
• 2022 Commonwealth Games Host: Birmingham, England.
• Commonwealth Games Federation (now Commonwealth Sport): Governing body of the Commonwealth Games.
• Next Commonwealth Games (2030): Ahmedabad, India.
• Common Exam Fact: Australia has hosted the Commonwealth Games five times—Sydney (1938), Perth (1962), Brisbane (1982), Melbourne (2006), and Gold Coast (2018).

Answer: (B) P. V. Sindhu

Explanation

P. V. Sindhu won the Women’s Singles title at the Swiss Open 2022 by defeating Busanan Ongbamrungphan of Thailand in the final. This was her second Swiss Open title, having previously won the tournament in 2019.

Exam Facts

• Winner: P. V. Sindhu (India).
• Tournament: Swiss Open 2022.
• Venue: Basel, Switzerland.
• Runner-up: Busanan Ongbamrungphan (Thailand).
• P. V. Sindhu also won the Swiss Open in: 2019.
• Governing Body: Badminton World Federation (BWF).
• P. V. Sindhu: India’s first woman to win two Olympic medals (Silver – Rio 2016, Bronze – Tokyo 2020).
• Common Exam Fact: Prakash Padukone (1980) and Pullela Gopichand (2001) are the two Indian winners of the prestigious All England Open Badminton Championships.

Answer: (A) Balkrishna Doshi

Explanation

Renowned Indian architect Balkrishna Vithaldas (B. V.) Doshi was awarded the Royal Gold Medal 2022 by the Royal Institute of British Architects (RIBA). The medal recognizes a lifetime’s contribution to architecture, and Doshi was honoured for his pioneering work in sustainable, affordable, and human-centric architecture.

Exam Facts

• Awardee: Balkrishna V. Doshi.
• Award: Royal Gold Medal 2022.
• Presented by: Royal Institute of British Architects (RIBA) on behalf of the British Monarch.
• First Indian to win the Pritzker Architecture Prize: Balkrishna Doshi (2018).
• Notable Works: Indian Institute of Management (IIM) Bangalore, Aranya Low-Cost Housing (Indore), CEPT University (Ahmedabad).
• Mentors: Worked with renowned architects Le Corbusier and Louis Kahn.
• Royal Gold Medal: One of the world’s highest honours in architecture, awarded for a lifetime of achievement.
• Common Exam Fact: Balkrishna Doshi was awarded the Padma Shri (1976) and the Padma Bhushan (2020) for his contributions to architecture.

Answer: (A) Louise Glück

Explanation

Louise Glück, an American poet, was awarded the Nobel Prize in Literature 2020 for her distinctive poetic voice that, with austere beauty, makes individual existence universal. She is widely known for exploring themes of childhood, family, loss, and nature in her poetry.

Exam Facts

• Winner: Louise Glück (USA).
• Awarded: Nobel Prize in Literature 2020.
• Awarding Body: Swedish Academy.
• Reason for Award: “For her unmistakable poetic voice that with austere beauty makes individual existence universal.”
• Nationality: American.
• Nobel Prizes Established By: Alfred Nobel through his will (1895).
• First Nobel Prizes Awarded: 1901.
• Common Exam Fact: The Nobel Prize is awarded annually in Physics, Chemistry, Physiology or Medicine, Literature, Peace, and Economic Sciences (the Economics Prize was instituted by Sveriges Riksbank in 1968 and first awarded in 1969).

Answer: (D) Classes IX to XII

Explanation

Sabooj Sathi is a flagship scheme of the Government of West Bengal that provides free bicycles to students studying in Classes IX to XII in Government, Government-aided schools, Madrasahs, and other eligible institutions. The scheme aims to reduce dropout rates, improve school attendance, and ensure easier access to education, especially in rural areas.

Exam Facts

• Launched by: Government of West Bengal.
• Launch Year: 2015.
• Beneficiaries: Students of Classes IX to XII.
• Objective: Improve school attendance, reduce dropout rates, and promote access to education.
• Coverage: Government, Government-aided Schools, Madrasahs, and eligible educational institutions.
• Implementing Department: School Education Department, Government of West Bengal.
• Award: The scheme received the United Nations Public Service Award (UNPSA) 2019 in the category of Delivering Inclusive and Equitable Services.
• Common Exam Fact: Kanyashree Prakalpa, another flagship scheme of West Bengal, received the United Nations Public Service Award (UNPSA) 2017.

Answer: (B) Oman

Explanation

Cyclone Yaas was named by Oman under the tropical cyclone naming system of the WMO/ESCAP Panel on Tropical Cyclones. The cyclone formed over the Bay of Bengal and made landfall on the Odisha coast in May 2021, causing widespread damage in Odisha and West Bengal.

Exam Facts

• Correct Answer: Oman.
• Cyclone Yaas: Made landfall on 26 May 2021 near Balasore (Odisha).
• Naming Authority: WMO/ESCAP Panel on Tropical Cyclones.
• Regional Specialised Meteorological Centre (RSMC): India Meteorological Department (IMD), New Delhi.
• ‘Yaas’ is one of the cyclone names submitted by Oman.
• Cyclones over the North Indian Ocean (Bay of Bengal and Arabian Sea) are named from a pre-approved list submitted by member countries.
• Once a cyclone name is used, it is not reused in the North Indian Ocean region.
• Common Exam Fact: Recent cyclone names include Mocha (Yemen), Remal (Oman), Michaung (Myanmar), Dana (Qatar), and Fengal (Saudi Arabia).

Answer: (C) Democratic Party

Explanation

Joseph Robinette (Joe) Biden Jr. is a member of the Democratic Party. He became the 46th President of the United States after winning the 2020 U.S. Presidential Election and assumed office on 20 January 2021, succeeding Donald Trump.

Exam Facts

• Correct Answer: Democratic Party.
• 46th President of the USA: Joe Biden.
• Assumed Office: 20 January 2021.
• Vice President: Kamala Harris (first woman, first African American, and first Asian American Vice President of the USA).
• Major Political Parties in the USA: Democratic Party and Republican Party.
• Official Residence of the U.S. President: The White House, Washington, D.C.
• Current President (2026): Donald Trump (47th President, serving his second non-consecutive term).
• Common Exam Fact: The President of the United States is elected through the Electoral College system, not by direct popular vote.

Answer: (B) England won the Super Over by boundaries

Explanation

The 2019 ICC Cricket World Cup Final between England and New Zealand ended in a tie, and the Super Over also ended in a tie. Under the ICC rules in force at that time, England was declared the winner because they had scored more boundaries (fours and sixes) during the match and Super Over combined. This rule was later abolished following widespread criticism.

Exam Facts

• Winner: England (first-ever ICC Cricket World Cup title).
• Runner-up: New Zealand.
• Final Venue: Lord’s Cricket Ground, London, England.
• Date: 14 July 2019.
• Player of the Match (Final): Ben Stokes (England).
• Player of the Tournament: Kane Williamson (New Zealand).
• Rule Change: The boundary count rule was abolished by the ICC in October 2019. In knockout matches, if the Super Over is tied, additional Super Overs are played until a winner is decided.
• Common Exam Fact: The ICC Men’s Cricket World Cup 2023 was hosted by India, with Australia defeating India in the final at Narendra Modi Stadium, Ahmedabad.

Answer: (A) SARS-CoV-2

Explanation

The virus that causes COVID-19 is officially named Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome Coronavirus 2 (SARS-CoV-2). The disease caused by this virus is called COVID-19 (Coronavirus Disease 2019). Thus, the virus and the disease have different names.

Exam Facts

• Correct Answer: SARS-CoV-2.
• Disease Name: COVID-19 (Coronavirus Disease 2019).
• WHO declared COVID-19 a Pandemic: 11 March 2020.
• First reported cases: Wuhan, Hubei Province, China (December 2019).
• WHO Headquarters: Geneva, Switzerland.
• World Health Day: 7 April.
• WHO Established: 7 April 1948.
• Common Exam Fact: The World Health Organization (WHO) is a specialized agency of the United Nations (UN) responsible for international public health.

Answer: (B) Sushil Chandra

Explanation

Sushil Chandra served as the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) of India from 13 April 2021 to 14 May 2022. He succeeded Sunil Arora and supervised several important elections, including Assembly elections held during his tenure.

Exam Facts

• Correct Answer: Sushil Chandra.
• Tenure as CEC: 13 April 2021 – 14 May 2022.
• Succeeded: Sunil Arora.
• Succeeded by: Rajiv Kumar.
• Constitutional Provision: Article 324 of the Constitution vests the superintendence, direction, and control of elections in the Election Commission of India (ECI).
• Election Commission of India: Established on 25 January 1950 (celebrated as National Voters’ Day since 2011).
• Composition: One Chief Election Commissioner and such number of Election Commissioners as the President may determine.
• Current Chief Election Commissioner (2026): Gyanesh Kumar.

Answer: (A) Manpreet Singh

Explanation

Manpreet Singh was named the captain of the Indian Men’s Hockey Team for the Tokyo Olympics (2020 Games held in 2021). Birendra Lakra and Harmanpreet Singh were appointed as the vice-captains. Under Manpreet’s leadership, India won the bronze medal, ending a 41-year Olympic medal drought in men’s hockey.

Exam Facts

• Correct Answer: Manpreet Singh.
• Vice-Captains: Birendra Lakra and Harmanpreet Singh.
• Tokyo Olympics: Held in 2021 (officially called Tokyo 2020) due to the COVID-19 pandemic.
• India won: Bronze Medal in men’s hockey by defeating Germany 5–4.
• Significance: India’s first Olympic hockey medal since the 1980 Moscow Olympics.
• Captain of Indian Women’s Hockey Team (Tokyo Olympics): Rani Rampal.
• Governing Body: Hockey India.
• Common Exam Fact: India is the most successful nation in Olympic men’s hockey history, having won 8 gold medals.

Answer: (D) All of the above

Explanation

Under the Kanyashree Prakalpa scheme of the Government of West Bengal, the family income ceiling is waived for certain vulnerable categories of girls. These include physically challenged girls, girls who have lost both parents, and girls residing in Juvenile Justice (JJ) Homes, ensuring that financial hardship does not prevent them from receiving benefits.

Exam Facts

• Correct Answer: All of the above.
• Launched By: Government of West Bengal.
• Launch Year: 2013.
• Implementing Department: Department of Women and Child Development & Social Welfare, Government of West Bengal.
• Objective: Prevent child marriage, reduce school dropout, and promote education and empowerment of girls.
• Major Components: K1 (annual scholarship) and K2 (one-time grant at 18 years if unmarried and continuing education/training).
• International Recognition: UN Public Service Award (UNPSA) 2017.
• Common Exam Fact: Sabooj Sathi, Rupashree, and Lakshmir Bhandar are other important welfare schemes of the Government of West Bengal frequently asked in WBCS and other state examinations.

Answer: (B) Mars

Explanation

NASA’s Perseverance rover successfully landed on Mars on 18 February 2021 in the Jezero Crater. Its primary mission is to search for signs of ancient microbial life, collect rock and soil samples for future return to Earth, and demonstrate new exploration technologies.

Exam Facts

• Correct Answer: Mars.
• Landing Date: 18 February 2021.
• Landing Site: Jezero Crater, Mars.
• Mission Name: Mars 2020 Mission.
• Space Agency: NASA (National Aeronautics and Space Administration).
• Companion Helicopter: Ingenuity, the first aircraft to achieve powered flight on another planet.
• Main Objectives: Search for ancient life, collect samples, and test technologies for future human missions.
• Common Exam Fact: India’s Mangalyaan (Mars Orbiter Mission) was launched by ISRO in 2013 and made India the first Asian nation to reach Mars orbit and the first country to do so on its maiden attempt.

Answer: (B) Dingko Singh

Explanation

Ngangom Dingko Singh, one of India’s finest boxers, passed away on 10 June 2021 at the age of 42 after battling liver cancer. He won the gold medal in the 54 kg bantamweight category at the 1998 Asian Games in Bangkok, becoming an inspiration for a generation of Indian boxers.

Exam Facts

• Correct Answer: Dingko Singh.
• Full Name: Ngangom Dingko Singh.
• Asian Games Gold: 1998 Bangkok Asian Games (54 kg Bantamweight).
• State: Manipur.
• Award: Arjuna Award (1998).
• Sport: Boxing.
• Common Exam Fact: Dingko Singh’s success inspired several Indian boxing stars, including M. C. Mary Kom from Manipur.
• Common Exam Fact: The Asian Games are organized by the Olympic Council of Asia (OCA) and are held every four years.

Answer: (C) TCS

Explanation

Tata Consultancy Services (TCS) is India’s largest Information Technology (IT) services company in terms of market capitalization, revenue, and workforce. It is the flagship IT company of the Tata Group and is one of the world’s leading providers of IT services, consulting, and business solutions.

Exam Facts

• Correct Answer: Tata Consultancy Services (TCS).
• Founded: 1968.
• Parent Group: Tata Group.
• Headquarters: Mumbai, Maharashtra.
• Founder of Tata Group: Jamsetji Nusserwanji Tata.
• Current Chairman of Tata Sons (2026): Natarajan Chandrasekaran (former CEO & MD of TCS).
• Largest IT Companies in India: TCS, Infosys, HCLTech, Wipro, Tech Mahindra.
• Common Exam Fact: TCS was the first Indian IT company to cross a market capitalization of US$100 billion (2018) and later became the first Indian IT company to cross US$200 billion in market capitalization.

Answer: (D) None of them

Explanation

There was no Chief Guest at India’s 72nd Republic Day Parade on 26 January 2021. UK Prime Minister Boris Johnson, who had been invited as the Chief Guest, cancelled his visit due to the worsening COVID-19 situation in the United Kingdom.

Exam Facts

• Correct Answer: None of them.
• Republic Day 2021: 26 January 2021 (72nd Republic Day).
• Invited Chief Guest: Boris Johnson, Prime Minister of the United Kingdom.
• Reason for Cancellation: Rising COVID-19 cases and travel restrictions in the UK.
• No Chief Guest: Republic Day 2021 was one of the rare occasions when India had no foreign Chief Guest.
• Republic Day Celebrates: The coming into force of the Constitution of India on 26 January 1950.
• Constitution Adopted: 26 November 1949.
• Common Exam Fact: The Republic Day Parade is held annually on Kartavya Path (formerly Rajpath) in New Delhi.

Answer: (D) Rohit Sharma

Explanation

Rohit Sharma was conferred the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award 2020, India’s highest sporting honour at that time. He was recognized for his outstanding performances in international cricket, including leading India to several major victories and becoming one of the world’s leading limited-overs batsmen.

Exam Facts

• Correct Answer: Rohit Sharma.
• Award Year: 2020.
• India’s Highest Sporting Honour (then): Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award.
• Renamed: In 2021, it was renamed the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award.
• Other Khel Ratna Awardees (2020): Rani Rampal (Hockey), Manika Batra (Table Tennis), Vinesh Phogat (Wrestling), and Mariyappan Thangavelu (Para Athletics).
• Administered By: Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, Government of India.
• Arjuna Award: India’s second-highest sporting honour.
• Common Exam Fact: Rohit Sharma is the only cricketer to score three double centuries in One Day Internationals (ODIs).

Answer: (C) a digital equivalent of pamphlets and fliers that helped mobilise protesters.

Explanation

A toolkit is a digital document containing information, resources, suggested actions, social media hashtags, and campaign materials to help organize or support a movement or public campaign. The term gained prominence in India during the 2020–21 farmers’ protests, when a “toolkit” shared online became the subject of public and legal debate.

Exam Facts

• Correct Answer: A digital equivalent of pamphlets and fliers used to mobilise protesters.
• A toolkit typically contains background information, campaign strategy, sample social media posts, hashtags, contact details, and action plans.
• The term became widely discussed during the 2020–21 Indian farmers’ protests.
• Greta Thunberg shared a toolkit related to the farmers’ protest on social media in February 2021, bringing international attention to the issue.
• Disha Ravi, a Bengaluru-based climate activist, was arrested in connection with the toolkit case in 2021.
• Common Exam Fact: The three farm laws enacted in 2020 were repealed by Parliament in November 2021.
• Common Exam Fact: For examination purposes, remember that a toolkit is an informational and organizational digital document, not a software platform or electronic device.

Answer: (A) Nipah

Explanation

Researchers from the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) and the National Institute of Virology (NIV), Pune detected antibodies against the Nipah virus (NiV) in bat species found in a cave at Mahabaleshwar, Maharashtra. The discovery was significant as it indicated the circulation of the virus among Indian bat populations and highlighted the need for continued surveillance.

Exam Facts

• Correct Answer: Nipah virus (NiV).
• Research Conducted By: ICMR – National Institute of Virology (NIV), Pune.
• Location: Mahabaleshwar Cave, Satara district, Maharashtra.
• Natural Reservoir: Fruit bats of the genus Pteropus (flying foxes).
• Nipah Virus: A zoonotic virus that can spread from animals to humans and also through human-to-human transmission.
• First Nipah Outbreak in India: Siliguri, West Bengal (2001).
• WHO: Lists Nipah virus among the priority pathogens requiring urgent research and development.
• Common Exam Fact: There is no specific antiviral treatment or licensed vaccine for Nipah virus; management is mainly supportive care.

Answer: (C) 100%

Explanation

Under the Swasthya Sathi scheme, the entire insurance premium (100%) is paid by the Government of West Bengal. Beneficiary families are not required to pay any premium, making it a fully state-funded cashless health insurance scheme.

Exam Facts

• Correct Answer: 100%.
• Launched By: Government of West Bengal.
• Launch Year: 2016.
• Premium Paid By: 100% by the State Government.
• Type of Scheme: Cashless health insurance.
• Coverage: Up to ₹5 lakh per family per year for secondary and tertiary healthcare.
• Beneficiary Card: Smart Card, issued in the name of the eldest female member of the family.
• Common Exam Fact: In December 2020, the scheme was expanded to provide universal health coverage to almost all residents of West Bengal who were not already covered under another government-funded health insurance scheme.

Answer: (D) Novak Djokovic

Explanation

Novak Djokovic won the 2021 French Open (Roland Garros) Men’s Singles title by defeating Stefanos Tsitsipas in the final. After losing the first two sets, Djokovic made a remarkable comeback to win in five sets, claiming his second French Open title and 19th Grand Slam singles title.

Exam Facts

• Correct Answer: Novak Djokovic (Serbia).
• Tournament: French Open (Roland Garros) 2021.
• Venue: Paris, France.
• Runner-up: Stefanos Tsitsipas (Greece).
• Final Score: 6–7, 2–6, 6–3, 6–2, 6–4.
• Women’s Singles Champion (2021): Barbora Krejčíková (Czech Republic).
• French Open Surface: Clay Court.
• Common Exam Fact: The French Open is one of the four Grand Slam tournaments—the others are the Australian Open, Wimbledon, and the US Open.

Answer: (A) Arunachalam Muruganantham

Explanation

The 2018 Hindi film Pad Man was inspired by the life of Arunachalam Muruganantham, a social entrepreneur from Tamil Nadu. He developed low-cost sanitary pad manufacturing machines to make menstrual hygiene products affordable for rural women and helped break the stigma surrounding menstruation.

Exam Facts

• Correct Answer: Arunachalam Muruganantham.
• State: Tamil Nadu.
• Known As: “Pad Man of India.”
• Film: Pad Man (2018).
• Director: R. Balki.
• Lead Actor: Akshay Kumar.
• Based On: The chapter “The Sanitary Man from Sacred Land” from Twinkle Khanna’s book The Legend of Lakshmi Prasad.
• Common Exam Fact: Arunachalam Muruganantham was awarded the Padma Shri in 2016 for his contribution to social work and menstrual hygiene awareness.

Answer: (A) 31st December 2020

Explanation

The National Intelligence Grid (NATGRID) was planned to become operational by 31 December 2020 in phases. NATGRID is an intelligence-sharing platform that integrates databases of various government agencies to assist in counter-terrorism, crime investigation, and national security.

Exam Facts

• Correct Answer: 31st December 2020.
• Full Form: National Intelligence Grid (NATGRID).
• Ministry: Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA).
• Concept Approved: After the 26/11 Mumbai terrorist attacks (2008) to strengthen national security.
• Purpose: To enable real-time intelligence sharing among authorized security and law enforcement agencies.
• Data Sources: Integrates information from databases such as banks, immigration, income tax, railways, airlines, telecom, passports, and others.
• Nature: NATGRID is not an investigative agency; it is an intelligence-sharing and data integration platform.
• Common Exam Fact: The National Investigation Agency (NIA) was established in 2008 under the National Investigation Agency Act, 2008, following the 26/11 Mumbai attacks.

Answer: (C) Kurmali language

Explanation

Kurmali (Kudmali) was granted official language status in West Bengal for use in specified areas through an amendment to the state’s Official Language Act. The language is also regarded as endangered/vulnerable by UNESCO, making its preservation an important cultural objective.

Exam Facts

• Correct Answer: Kurmali (Kudmali).
• Official Status in West Bengal: Granted under the West Bengal Official Language (Amendment) Act, 2018 for notified areas.
• Language Family: Indo-Aryan.
• Major Speakers: Kurmi community in West Bengal, Jharkhand, and Odisha.
• UNESCO: Lists many indigenous and tribal languages as endangered/vulnerable, highlighting the need for language preservation.
• Common Exam Fact: Santali is included in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution through the 92nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003.
• Santali Script: Ol Chiki, developed by Pandit Raghunath Murmu.
• Common Exam Fact: West Bengal has recognized several regional languages, including Nepali, Urdu, Santali, Rajbanshi, Kamtapuri, and Kurmali, in specified regions under its Official Language Act.

Answer: (B) Bulbul

Explanation

Severe Cyclonic Storm Bulbul struck the coastal districts of West Bengal in November 2019, causing extensive damage to houses, crops, and infrastructure, particularly in the Sundarbans and adjoining areas. The cyclone also affected parts of Bangladesh after crossing the Indian coast.

Exam Facts

• Correct Answer: Bulbul.
• Landfall: 9–10 November 2019 near the Sundarbans region.
• Affected States: West Bengal and Odisha; later moved into Bangladesh.
• Worst Affected Districts in West Bengal: North 24 Parganas, South 24 Parganas, East Midnapore, and Kolkata.
• Naming Authority: Pakistan proposed the name “Bulbul” under the WMO/ESCAP cyclone naming system.
• Cyclone Fani (2019): Mainly affected Odisha before weakening over West Bengal.
• Common Exam Fact: The India Meteorological Department (IMD), New Delhi, is the Regional Specialised Meteorological Centre (RSMC) for naming and tracking cyclones over the North Indian Ocean.
• Common Exam Fact: The Sundarbans, a UNESCO World Heritage Site, is one of the regions most vulnerable to tropical cyclones in the Bay of Bengal.

Answer: (D) protect the Indian Government from fake news.

Explanation

The Fact Check Unit (FCU) was proposed to identify and flag fake, false, or misleading information related to the business of the Central Government, particularly on online platforms. Its objective is to curb the spread of misinformation concerning government affairs. (Note: The legal status and implementation of the FCU have since been subject to judicial scrutiny and policy changes.)

Exam Facts

• Correct Answer: Protect the Indian Government from fake news (as per the context of this PYQ).
• Related Ministry: Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY).
• Related Law: Information Technology Act, 2000.
• The Fact Check Unit (FCU) was proposed under the Information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules, 2021 (amendment notified in 2023).
• Purpose: To identify fake, false, or misleading information relating to the business of the Central Government.
• PIB Fact Check: The Press Information Bureau (PIB) also operates an official fact-checking unit to verify government-related claims.
• Current Status: The implementation of the FCU has been challenged before courts, making it a frequently discussed current affairs topic.
• Common Exam Fact: The Press Information Bureau (PIB) functions under the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting and is the Government of India’s principal agency for disseminating official information.

Answer: (B) Nirmala Sitharaman

Explanation

Nirmala Sitharaman became the Finance Minister of India on 31 May 2019 in the Second Modi Ministry. She is the first full-time woman Finance Minister of independent India and has presented several Union Budgets, including the first paperless (digital) Union Budget in 2021.

Exam Facts

• Correct Answer: Nirmala Sitharaman.
• Assumed Office: 31 May 2019.
• First Full-time Woman Finance Minister of India: Nirmala Sitharaman.
• Preceded By: Arun Jaitley.
• Digital Union Budget: First paperless Union Budget presented in 2021 using a tablet instead of the traditional budget briefcase.
• Finance Ministry Headquarters: North Block, New Delhi.
• Current Finance Minister (2026): Nirmala Sitharaman.
• Common Exam Fact: Article 112 of the Constitution deals with the Annual Financial Statement (Union Budget), while the Finance Commission is constituted under Article 280.

Answer: (C) Office of the CJI also.

Explanation

In 2019, the Supreme Court of India upheld that the Office of the Chief Justice of India (CJI) is a “public authority” under the Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005 and is therefore subject to the RTI Act. However, the Court also clarified that disclosure of information must balance transparency, judicial independence, and the right to privacy.

Exam Facts

• Correct Answer: Office of the Chief Justice of India (CJI).
• Judgment Date: 13 November 2019.
• Bench: Constitution Bench led by Chief Justice Ranjan Gogoi.
• Related Law: Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005.
• Key Observation: The Office of the CJI is a public authority under Section 2(h) of the RTI Act.
• Balance Required: Transparency must be balanced with judicial independence and privacy.
• RTI Act Came into Force: 12 October 2005.
• Common Exam Fact: The Central Information Commission (CIC) is the apex appellate authority under the RTI Act, while Section 8 of the Act lists exemptions from disclosure of information.

Answer: (C) Narendra Modi (Prime Minister)

Explanation

The Fit India Movement was launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi on 29 August 2019 (National Sports Day) at the Indira Gandhi Indoor Stadium, New Delhi. The movement aims to encourage citizens to adopt a physically active and healthy lifestyle, making fitness an integral part of daily life.

Exam Facts

• Correct Answer: Narendra Modi.
• Launch Date: 29 August 2019.
• Occasion: National Sports Day.
• Launch Venue: Indira Gandhi Indoor Stadium, New Delhi.
• Implementing Ministry: Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports.
• Objective: Promote fitness, physical activity, and healthy living among all citizens.
• National Sports Day: Celebrated on 29 August, the birth anniversary of Major Dhyan Chand.
• Common Exam Fact: The Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award was renamed the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award in 2021.

Answer: (D) 2019

Explanation

India celebrated the 70th Constitution Day (Samvidhan Divas) on 26 November 2019, marking the 70th anniversary of the adoption of the Constitution of India by the Constituent Assembly on 26 November 1949. The Constitution came into force on 26 January 1950, which is celebrated as Republic Day.

Exam Facts

• Correct Answer: 2019.
• Constitution Day (Samvidhan Divas): 26 November every year.
• Constitution Adopted: 26 November 1949.
• Constitution Came into Force: 26 January 1950.
• Constitution Day was officially instituted in: 2015 by the Government of India.
• Chairman of the Drafting Committee: Dr. B. R. Ambedkar.
• President of the Constituent Assembly: Dr. Rajendra Prasad.
• Common Exam Fact: The Constituent Assembly held its first meeting on 9 December 1946, and the Objective Resolution was moved by Jawaharlal Nehru on 13 December 1946.

Answer: (D) Jagdeep Dhankhar

Explanation

Jagdeep Dhankhar served as the Governor of West Bengal from 30 July 2019 to 17 July 2022. This question is based on the period when he was the incumbent Governor. He later resigned after being elected as the 14th Vice-President of India in 2022.

Exam Facts

• Correct Answer: Jagdeep Dhankhar.
• Governor of West Bengal: 30 July 2019 – 17 July 2022.
• Succeeded: Keshari Nath Tripathi.
• Later Became: 14th Vice-President of India (11 August 2022).
• Constitutional Provisions: Articles 153–162 deal with the Governor and the executive power of the State.
• Appointment: The Governor is appointed by the President of India under Article 155.
• Term of Office: Normally 5 years under Article 156, subject to the pleasure of the President.
• Current Governor of West Bengal (2026): C. V. Ananda Bose.

Answer: (D) Pakistan

Explanation

The WHO-prequalified Indian-made Typhoid Conjugate Vaccine (TCV) was first introduced in Pakistan through its national immunization programme in 2019. Pakistan became the first country in the world to introduce the vaccine nationwide to combat extensively drug-resistant (XDR) typhoid.

Exam Facts

• Correct Answer: Pakistan.
• Vaccine: Typhoid Conjugate Vaccine (TCV).
• Manufacturer: Bharat Biotech (India).
• WHO Prequalification: 2017.
• First Country to Introduce TCV Nationwide: Pakistan (2019).
• Disease Caused By: Salmonella enterica serovar Typhi (Salmonella Typhi).
• Mode of Transmission: Contaminated food and water (faeco-oral route).
• Common Exam Fact: The World Health Organization (WHO) recommends Typhoid Conjugate Vaccines for routine immunization in countries with a high burden of typhoid fever.

Answer: (B) Find, assess, create and target

Explanation

The FACT Check Module was introduced to promote awareness about identifying and countering fake news and misinformation. The acronym FACT stands for Find, Assess, Create, and Target, providing a framework for verifying information and encouraging responsible dissemination of authentic content.

Exam Facts

• Correct Answer: Find, Assess, Create and Target (FACT).
• Objective: To identify, verify, and counter fake news and misinformation.
• Focus Areas: Media literacy, digital awareness, and responsible use of social media.
• Related Government Initiative: PIB Fact Check verifies information related to the Government of India.
• Related Ministry: Ministry of Information and Broadcasting (PIB Fact Check) and MeitY (digital governance).
• Related Law: Information Technology Act, 2000.
• Common Exam Fact: The Press Information Bureau (PIB) is the principal agency of the Government of India for disseminating official information to the media and the public.

Answer: (D) encourage families to marry off their girl child after 18 years of age.

Explanation

The Arundhati Swarna Yojana was launched by the Government of Assam on 1 January 2020 to encourage legal-age marriages and support newly married brides. Under the scheme, eligible brides marrying at or above the legal age of 18 years received financial assistance for the purchase of gold (up to 10 grams), promoting the eradication of child marriage.

Exam Facts

• Correct Answer: Encourage families to marry off their girl child after 18 years of age.
• Launched By: Government of Assam.
• Launch Date: 1 January 2020.
• Objective: Promote legal-age marriage and discourage child marriage.
• Benefit: Financial assistance equivalent to the cost of 10 grams of gold for eligible brides.
• Eligibility: Bride must be 18 years or older, and the marriage must be registered under the law.
• Legal Minimum Marriage Age (at that time): 18 years for women and 21 years for men under the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006.

Answer: (B) Amitabh Bachchan

Explanation

Amitabh Bachchan was conferred the Icon of the Golden Jubilee Award at the 50th International Film Festival of India (IFFI), 2019. The award recognized his outstanding contribution to Indian cinema over several decades.

Exam Facts

• Correct Answer: Amitabh Bachchan.
• Award: Icon of the Golden Jubilee Award.
• Occasion: 50th International Film Festival of India (IFFI), 2019.
• Venue: Goa.
• Organised By: Directorate of Film Festivals (DFF), Ministry of Information & Broadcasting, in association with the Government of Goa.
• IFFI Established: 1952.
• IFFI is held annually in: Goa (since 2004).
• Common Exam Fact: The Dadasaheb Phalke Award is India’s highest honour in cinema, presented annually by the Government of India for lifetime contribution to Indian cinema.

Answer: (A) Sriharikota

Explanation

Cartosat-3 was launched by ISRO on 27 November 2019 aboard the PSLV-C47 rocket from the Satish Dhawan Space Centre (SDSC), Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh. It is a high-resolution Earth observation satellite designed for applications such as urban planning, infrastructure monitoring, coastal land use, and disaster management.

Exam Facts

• Correct Answer: Sriharikota.
• Launch Date: 27 November 2019.
• Launch Vehicle: PSLV-C47 (Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle).
• Launch Site: Satish Dhawan Space Centre (SDSC-SHAR), Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh.
• Space Agency: Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO).
• Mission Type: Earth Observation/Remote Sensing Satellite.
• Along with Cartosat-3: 13 commercial nanosatellites from the USA were also launched.
• Common Exam Fact: Sriharikota, located on Sriharikota Island in Andhra Pradesh, is ISRO’s only operational spaceport for satellite launches.

Answer: (D) None of the above

Explanation

Both statements are incorrect. Queen Pineapple is closely associated with Tripura, not Nagaland. It received the Geographical Indication (GI) tag in 2018, not in 2015, recognizing its unique quality, sweetness, and aroma.

Exam Facts

• Correct Answer: (D) None of the above.
• Queen Pineapple is associated with: Tripura.
• GI Tag Granted: 2018.
• GI Registration Authority: Geographical Indications Registry, Chennai.
• Governed By: Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999.
• GI Act Came into Force: 15 September 2003.
• Common Exam Fact: A Geographical Indication (GI) identifies goods whose quality, reputation, or characteristics are essentially attributable to their geographical origin.
• Other Important GI Tags from Tripura: Rignai, Tripura Queen Pineapple, and Matabari Pera are frequently asked in competitive examinations.

Answer: (C) Corps of Signals and Confederation of Indian Industry (C.I.I.)

Explanation

DEFCOM India is a biennial conference and exhibition jointly organized by the Corps of Signals of the Indian Army and the Confederation of Indian Industry (CII). It serves as a platform for discussions on military communications, information technology, cybersecurity, artificial intelligence, and defence electronics.

Exam Facts

• Correct Answer: Corps of Signals and Confederation of Indian Industry (CII).
• DEFCOM: A premier defence communications conference and exhibition.
• Joint Organisers: Corps of Signals (Indian Army) and Confederation of Indian Industry (CII).
• Focus Areas: Military communications, AI, cyber security, electronic warfare, and emerging defence technologies.
• Corps of Signals: Responsible for the communication and information systems of the Indian Army.
• CII Full Form: Confederation of Indian Industry.
• CII Established: 1895.
• Common Exam Fact: DefExpo is India’s flagship defence exhibition, organized by the Ministry of Defence, while Aero India is the country’s premier aerospace and aviation exhibition held at Bengaluru.