1. The Centre has released a draft notification for declaring an Eco-Sensitive Zone (ESZ) around which mountain range?
A. Aravalli Hills
B. Western Ghats
C. Vindhya Range
D. Satpura Range
Answer: B. Western Ghats
Explanation: The Centre has issued a draft notification proposing an Eco-Sensitive Zone around parts of the Western Ghats. ESZs act as buffer zones around protected areas to regulate activities that may adversely affect biodiversity and fragile ecosystems.
The latest draft proposes an Eco-Sensitive Area of 56,825.74 sq. km across six States. The notification seeks to regulate activities such as mining, quarrying and certain industries while permitting sustainable agriculture and local livelihoods.
2. India’s Index of Industrial Production (IIP) growth reached a 23-month high of what percentage in June 2026?
A. 5.8%
B. 6.5%
C. 7.3%
D. 8.1%
Answer: C. 7.3%
Explanation: India’s industrial output, measured by the Index of Industrial Production (IIP), grew by 7.3% in June 2026, the highest growth recorded in 23 months. The growth was mainly driven by manufacturing, electricity generation and capital goods production.
3. A powerful earthquake recently struck which country, trapping people inside a shopping mall?
A. Indonesia
B. Philippines
C. Japan
D. Taiwan
Answer: C. Japan
Explanation: A strong earthquake struck Japan, causing widespread damage and trapping people inside a shopping mall. Japan lies along the Pacific Ring of Fire, making it one of the world’s most earthquake-prone countries.
4. The Soliga tribe, recently seen in the news, is primarily associated with which Indian State?
A. Odisha
B. Karnataka
C. Maharashtra
D. Chhattisgarh
Answer: B. Karnataka
Explanation: The Soligas are a Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group (PVTG) primarily inhabiting the Biligiri Ranganatha Hills (BRT Hills) of Karnataka. A recent study highlighted that involving indigenous communities like the Soligas can improve biodiversity conservation compared to exclusionary (“fortress”) conservation approaches.
5. A recent study on wildlife conservation highlighted the importance of involving indigenous communities instead of following which conservation model?
A. Community-based conservation
B. Landscape conservation
C. Fortress conservation
D. Ecosystem restoration
Answer: C. Fortress conservation
Explanation: Fortress conservation refers to protecting forests by excluding local communities. The study argued that recognizing indigenous rights and involving communities such as the Soligas leads to more effective and sustainable conservation outcomes.
6. The Andhra Pradesh government recently signed an MoU with which pharmaceutical company to establish an Integrated Genomic Solutions Centre?
A. Pfizer
B. Moderna
C. AstraZeneca
D. GSK
Answer: C. AstraZeneca
Explanation: Andhra Pradesh signed an MoU with AstraZeneca India to establish an Integrated Genomic Solutions Centre aimed at strengthening precision medicine, genomic research, biomarker analysis and advanced diagnostics.
7. Amoebic brain infection, recently reported in Kerala, is primarily caused by which free-living amoeba?
A. Entamoeba histolytica
B. Naegleria fowleri
C. Acanthamoeba castellanii
D. Giardia lamblia
Answer: B. Naegleria fowleri
Explanation: Amoebic brain infection, also known as Primary Amoebic Meningoencephalitis (PAM), is caused by Naegleria fowleri. The amoeba is commonly found in warm freshwater bodies and enters the body through the nose during swimming or diving.
8. The Supreme Court recently heard petitions regarding the alleged use of which crowd-control weapon during protests at Jantar Mantar?
A. Water cannon
B. Tear gas shells
C. Pellet guns
D. Rubber bullets
Answer: C. Pellet guns
Explanation: The Supreme Court is examining petitions alleging the use of pellet guns by security personnel during protests at Jantar Mantar. The matter concerns the proportional use of force and the protection of constitutional rights during public demonstrations.
9. The Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Amendment Bill, 2026 seeks to increase the maximum imprisonment for paper leak offences to:
A. 5 years
B. 7 years
C. 10 years
D. Life imprisonment
Answer: C. 10 years
Explanation: The Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Amendment Bill, 2026 proposes stricter punishment for examination malpractices by increasing the maximum imprisonment from 7 years to 10 years and enhancing penalties to strengthen the integrity of public examinations.
10. The Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 2024 primarily aims to:
A. Regulate private coaching institutes
B. Prevent unfair means and paper leaks in public examinations
C. Introduce online examinations across India
D. Establish a National Examination Commission
Answer: B. Prevent unfair means and paper leaks in public examinations
Explanation: The Act seeks to curb paper leaks, organised cheating and other unfair practices in public examinations conducted by Central authorities, ensuring transparency, fairness and credibility in the recruitment process.
11. Which constitutional amendment inserted reservation for women in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies?
A. 101st Constitutional Amendment
B. 103rd Constitutional Amendment
C. 106th Constitutional Amendment
D. 108th Constitutional Amendment
Answer: C. 106th Constitutional Amendment
Explanation: The 106th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2023 (Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam) provides 33% reservation for women in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies. Its implementation is linked to the next Census and the subsequent delimitation exercise.
12. The implementation of women’s reservation in the Lok Sabha under the 106th Constitutional Amendment will take effect after:
A. The next General Election
B. The next Finance Commission award
C. The first Census conducted after the commencement of the Amendment and the subsequent delimitation exercise
D. Approval by all State Legislatures
Answer: C. The first Census conducted after the commencement of the Amendment and the subsequent delimitation exercise
Explanation: The reservation will become operational after the first Census conducted following the commencement of the Amendment and the subsequent delimitation of constituencies, as provided under the Constitution.
13. Which of the following States is NOT part of the proposed Eco-Sensitive Area (ESA) notification for the Western Ghats?
A. Goa
B. Gujarat
C. Tamil Nadu
D. Maharashtra
Answer: B. Gujarat
Explanation: The proposed Eco-Sensitive Area covers parts of Gujarat, Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu. (If Gujarat is excluded in future notifications, rely on the official notification.) From the article, the six States involved are Gujarat, Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu.
14. A recent study found that multiple strains of which mosquito-borne disease are circulating simultaneously in India?
A. Chikungunya
B. Malaria
C. Dengue
D. Zika
Answer: C. Dengue
Explanation: A study reported the simultaneous circulation of multiple dengue virus serotypes in India. Such co-circulation increases the risk of secondary infections and severe dengue, making disease surveillance and vaccine development more challenging.
15. How many dengue virus serotypes are known to circulate globally?
A. Two
B. Three
C. Four
D. Five
Answer: C. Four
Explanation: Dengue virus has four antigenically distinct serotypes—DENV-1, DENV-2, DENV-3 and DENV-4. Infection with one serotype provides lifelong immunity only against that serotype, while subsequent infection with another serotype increases the risk of severe dengue.
16. The Government of India launched the “Tigers Outside Tiger Reserves (TOTR)” initiative to address which issue?
A. Increasing human-elephant conflict
B. Conservation of tigers living outside notified Tiger Reserves
C. Reintroduction of Asiatic lions
D. Conservation of snow leopards
Answer: B. Conservation of tigers living outside notified Tiger Reserves
Explanation: The Tigers Outside Tiger Reserves (TOTR) initiative aims to conserve tigers living outside notified Tiger Reserves by reducing human-tiger conflict, improving habitat connectivity, strengthening monitoring, and promoting community participation.
17. According to the 2022 tiger estimation, approximately what percentage of India’s tiger population lives outside notified Tiger Reserves?
A. About 15%
B. About 35–40%
C. About 55%
D. About 75%
Answer: B. About 35–40%
Explanation: The All India Tiger Estimation 2022 reported that nearly 35–40% of India’s tiger population occurs outside notified Tiger Reserves, highlighting the need for landscape-level conservation.
18. Which country has the world’s largest wild tiger population?
A. Russia
B. Indonesia
C. India
D. Nepal
Answer: C. India
Explanation: India is home to over 70% of the world’s wild tigers. According to the All India Tiger Estimation 2022, the country’s tiger population stands at 3,682, making India the global leader in tiger conservation.
19. According to the 2025 Status of Policing in India report, what proportion of police personnel supported immunity from prosecution while using force during official duties?
A. Around 30%
B. Around 50%
C. Around 70%
D. Around 90%
Answer: C. Around 70%
Explanation: The 2025 Status of Policing in India report found that over 70% of surveyed police personnel supported legal immunity for the use of force while performing official duties, reflecting concerns about operational challenges and accountability.
20. The West Bengal Panchayat (Second Amendment) Bill, 2026 recently transferred the power to register births and deaths from elected Gram Pradhans to:
A. Block Development Officers
B. Panchayat Secretaries and other designated officials
C. District Magistrates
D. Zilla Parishad Chairpersons
Answer: B. Panchayat Secretaries and other designated officials
Explanation: The West Bengal Panchayat (Second Amendment) Bill, 2026 transferred the authority to register births and deaths from elected Gram Pradhans to Panchayat Secretaries and other designated officials, aiming to streamline administrative processes.
21. Which Constitutional Amendment gave constitutional status to Panchayati Raj Institutions in India?
A. 42nd Constitutional Amendment
B. 44th Constitutional Amendment
C. 73rd Constitutional Amendment
D. 74th Constitutional Amendment
Answer: C. 73rd Constitutional Amendment
Explanation: The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 inserted Part IX (Articles 243–243O) into the Constitution and provided constitutional status to Panchayati Raj Institutions, strengthening rural local self-government.
22. The Ministry of Civil Aviation is considering relaxing cross-ownership norms between airports and airlines following an agreement involving which Brazilian aircraft manufacturer?
A. Embraer
B. Airbus
C. ATR
D. Dassault Aviation
Answer: A. Embraer
Explanation: The Centre is reviewing airport-airline cross-ownership norms after Adani Group’s agreement with Embraer to explore aircraft manufacturing and maintenance opportunities in India.
23. Under the current cross-ownership rules, an airport operator is generally permitted to own up to what percentage stake in an airline?
A. 10%
B. 26%
C. 49%
D. 74%
Answer: B. 26%
Explanation: Existing norms permit an airport operator to hold up to 26% equity in an airline, subject to conditions aimed at preventing conflicts of interest and ensuring fair competition.
24. The term “Global South”, frequently seen in international relations, generally refers to:
A. Countries located entirely in the Southern Hemisphere
B. Developed industrialised countries of Europe and North America
C. Developing and emerging economies of Asia, Africa, Latin America and Oceania
D. Members of the G7 countries
Answer: C. Developing and emerging economies of Asia, Africa, Latin America and Oceania
Explanation: The Global South broadly refers to developing and emerging economies, many of which share common challenges related to development, climate change and global governance. India has consistently advocated the concerns of the Global South in international forums.
25. Which country hosted the Voice of Global South Summit, an initiative to strengthen cooperation among developing countries?
A. Brazil
B. South Africa
C. India
D. Indonesia
Answer: C. India
Explanation: India launched and hosted the Voice of Global South Summit to amplify the concerns and priorities of developing countries and promote more inclusive global governance.
26. India recently curtailed 8,133 GWh of solar power mainly to:
A. Reduce carbon emissions
B. Maintain grid security and grid stability
C. Increase electricity tariffs
D. Promote thermal power generation
Answer: B. Maintain grid security and grid stability
Explanation: India curtailed 8,133 GWh of solar power during April–June 2026 due to grid security concerns and transmission constraints. Curtailment is undertaken to maintain the stability and reliability of the electricity grid when supply exceeds the grid’s capacity to absorb renewable energy.
27. India has emerged as the strongest growth market for the tourism industry of which country?
A. France
B. Germany
C. Japan
D. Australia
Answer: B. Germany
Explanation: Germany identified India as its fastest-growing tourism market. Increasing outbound travel from India and enhanced air connectivity are expected to strengthen tourism and business ties between the two countries.
28. Indian space technology startups raised approximately how much funding during 2025?
A. US$100 million
B. US$150 million
C. US$200 million
D. US$500 million
Answer: C. US$200 million
Explanation: Indian space-tech startups raised about US$200 million in 2025, with Bengaluru remaining the country’s leading space innovation hub. The growth reflects increasing private investment following India’s space sector reforms.
29. China has recently begun producing indigenous lithography machines based on which semiconductor manufacturing technology?
A. Extreme Ultraviolet (EUV) Lithography
B. Deep Ultraviolet (DUV) Lithography
C. X-ray Lithography
D. Electron Beam Lithography
Answer: B. Deep Ultraviolet (DUV) Lithography
Explanation: China has started manufacturing indigenous Deep Ultraviolet (DUV) lithography machines as part of its efforts to reduce dependence on foreign semiconductor technology amid export restrictions imposed by Western countries.
30. Which Dutch company is the world’s leading manufacturer of advanced semiconductor lithography machines?
A. NXP Semiconductors
B. STMicroelectronics
C. ASML Holding
D. Infineon Technologies
Answer: C. ASML Holding
Explanation: ASML Holding, headquartered in the Netherlands, is the world’s leading supplier of advanced lithography systems, including Extreme Ultraviolet (EUV) machines used to manufacture cutting-edge semiconductor chips.
31. The Patriot air defence system, recently discussed by Ukraine and the United States, is primarily designed to:
A. Detect submarines
B. Intercept aircraft, cruise missiles and ballistic missiles
C. Launch intercontinental ballistic missiles
D. Destroy naval aircraft carriers
Answer: B. Intercept aircraft, cruise missiles and ballistic missiles
Explanation: The Patriot (Phased Array Tracking Radar for Intercept on Target) is an advanced surface-to-air missile defence system capable of intercepting aircraft, cruise missiles and tactical ballistic missiles.
32. Sarvesh Kushare recently won India’s first-ever silver medal in the men’s high jump at which sporting event?
A. Asian Games
B. Commonwealth Games
C. World Athletics Championships
D. Olympic Games
Answer: B. Commonwealth Games
Explanation: Sarvesh Kushare created history by becoming the first Indian to win a silver medal in the men’s high jump at the Commonwealth Games. His achievement marked a milestone for Indian athletics in field events.
33. Sharmila Dhankar, recently in the news, won the gold medal in which event at the Commonwealth Games?
A. Para Javelin Throw F57
B. Para Discus Throw F57
C. Para Shot Put F57
D. Para Club Throw F57
Answer: C. Para Shot Put F57
Explanation: Sharmila Dhankar won the gold medal in the Women’s Para Shot Put F57 event at the Commonwealth Games, becoming one of India’s standout performers in para athletics.
F57 is a Para Athletics field-event classification for athletes with lower-limb impairments who compete in events such as shot put, discus throw and javelin.
34. Ajaya Babu, recently in the news, won a silver medal in which sport at the Commonwealth Games?
A. Wrestling
B. Boxing
C. Weightlifting
D. Athletics
Answer: C. Weightlifting
Explanation: Ajaya Babu won the silver medal in men’s weightlifting, continuing India’s strong tradition in the sport at the Commonwealth Games.
35. Indian boxers Preeti Pawar and Priya secured at least bronze medals by reaching which stage of the Commonwealth Games?
A. Round of 16
B. Quarterfinals
C. Semifinals
D. Finals
Answer: C. Semifinals
Explanation: In boxing competitions, both losing semifinalists receive bronze medals. By reaching the semifinals, Preeti Pawar and Priya assured India of at least bronze medals.
36. D. Gukesh became the youngest World Chess Champion by defeating which player?
A. Magnus Carlsen
B. Ding Liren
C. Ian Nepomniachtchi
D. Viswanathan Anand
Answer: B. Ding Liren
Explanation: D. Gukesh became the youngest World Chess Champion after defeating China’s Ding Liren, creating history for Indian chess.
37. Zinedine Zidane has recently been appointed as the head coach of which national football team?
A. Spain
B. France
C. Belgium
D. Portugal
Answer: B. France
Explanation: French football legend Zinedine Zidane has been appointed as the head coach of the France national football team, succeeding Didier Deschamps.
38. Nodirbek Abdusattorov, recently in the news, represents which country?
A. Kazakhstan
B. Uzbekistan
C. Azerbaijan
D. Kyrgyzstan
Answer: B. Uzbekistan
Explanation: Nodirbek Abdusattorov is an Uzbek Grandmaster and former World Rapid Chess Champion. He is regarded as one of the strongest young chess players in the world and is expected to play a key role for Uzbekistan in the Chess Olympiad.
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