1. The Supreme Court recently struck down guidelines governing police conduct during mass protests. Which fundamental right did the Court say must be protected?
A. Right to Property
B. Right to Peaceful Protest
C. Right to Vote
D. Right to Education
Answer: B. Right to Peaceful Protest
Explanation: The Supreme Court held that the right to peaceful protest is constitutionally protected and observed that police guidelines should not unnecessarily restrict democratic demonstrations. The Court stressed that maintaining public order should not undermine citizens’ constitutional freedoms.
2. Which strategic waterway was in the news after Iran stated that it still controls it while talking to the United States?
A. Strait of Malacca
B. Bab-el-Mandeb Strait
C. Strait of Hormuz
D. Bosporus Strait
Answer: C. Strait of Hormuz
Explanation: Iran reiterated that it continues to control the Strait of Hormuz, one of the world’s most important oil transit chokepoints. Any disruption in the strait can significantly affect global energy supplies.
3. Which High Court recently struck down a Tamil Nadu government order granting government jobs to the family members of victims of the 2025 Karur stampede?
A. Kerala High Court
B. Karnataka High Court
C. Madras High Court
D. Andhra Pradesh High Court
Answer: C. Madras High Court
Explanation: The Madras High Court held that compassionate appointments cannot be granted through executive orders without a proper legal framework. It ruled that public employment must follow the constitutional principles of equality and due process.
4. The Madras High Court observed that public employment should ordinarily be made in accordance with which Articles of the Constitution?
A. Articles 12 and 13
B. Articles 14 and 16
C. Articles 19 and 21
D. Articles 32 and 226
Answer: B. Articles 14 and 16
Explanation: The Court emphasized that Articles 14 (Equality before Law) and 16 (Equality of Opportunity in Public Employment) govern appointments to government posts. Any exception, such as compassionate appointment, must have a valid legal basis.
5. Tribal organisations in Tripura recently opposed the introduction of which system, citing concerns over customary tribal laws?
A. Panchayati Raj reforms
B. Uniform Civil Code (UCC)
C. One Nation One Election
D. National Register of Citizens (NRC)
Answer: B. Uniform Civil Code (UCC)
Explanation: Several tribal organisations in Tripura expressed concern that the proposed Uniform Civil Code (UCC) could affect customary tribal laws and traditional practices protected under existing legal provisions.
6. The Union government recently clarified that the 2018 Supreme Court judgment on the Cauvery dispute does not require Karnataka to obtain the consent of other riparian States before constructing which proposed project?
A. Kabini Dam
B. Mekedatu Balancing Reservoir Project
C. Hemavathi Reservoir Project
D. Harangi Dam
Answer: B. Mekedatu Balancing Reservoir Project
Explanation: The Centre informed Parliament that the 2018 Supreme Court judgment on the Cauvery water dispute does not mandate Karnataka to obtain the consent of other riparian States before proposing structures such as the Mekedatu Balancing Reservoir Project. However, statutory environmental and regulatory clearances are still required.
7. Kerala has nominated Ashok Das as its representative on the Independent Expert Panel constituted to review the safety of which dam?
A. Idukki Dam
B. Mullaperiyar Dam
C. Hirakud Dam
D. Nagarjuna Sagar Dam
Answer: B. Mullaperiyar Dam
Explanation: Kerala nominated Ashok Das, a former Chief Engineer, to the Independent Expert Panel constituted by the National Dam Safety Authority (NDSA) to undertake a comprehensive safety evaluation of the Mullaperiyar Dam.
8. The National Dam Safety Authority (NDSA), recently in the news, was constituted under which Act?
A. Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
B. River Boards Act, 1956
C. Dam Safety Act, 2021
D. Disaster Management Act, 2005
Answer: C. Dam Safety Act, 2021
Explanation: The National Dam Safety Authority (NDSA) was established under the Dam Safety Act, 2021 to implement dam safety policies, resolve technical issues, and oversee the surveillance, inspection, operation, and maintenance of specified dams across India.
9. The Supreme Court recently indicated that a high-powered task force to reform the NEET-UG examination system will be headed by whom?
A. N. Chandrasekaran
B. Nandan Nilekani
C. K. Kasturirangan
D. Sam Pitroda
Answer: B. Nandan Nilekani
Explanation: The Supreme Court noted that the Union government has constituted a high-powered task force headed by Nandan Nilekani to recommend reforms for making the NEET-UG examination system more secure, transparent, and technology-driven following concerns over paper leaks.
10. The National Testing Agency (NTA) was established in which year?
A. 2015
B. 2017
C. 2018
D. 2020
Answer: C. 2018
Explanation: The National Testing Agency (NTA) was established in 2018 as an autonomous organisation under the Ministry of Education to conduct transparent, efficient, and standardized entrance examinations.
11. The Union government recently introduced the Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Bill, 2026 in the Lok Sabha. The primary objective of the Bill is to:
A. Increase reservation in educational institutions
B. Prevent unfair means and paper leaks in public examinations
C. Regulate private coaching centres
D. Introduce online-only examinations
Answer: B. Prevent unfair means and paper leaks in public examinations
Explanation: The Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Bill, 2026 seeks to curb paper leaks, cheating, and other unfair practices in public examinations by providing stringent punishments and ensuring time-bound investigations.
12. According to the proposed Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Bill, 2026, which of the following is the key feature?
A. Abolition of entrance examinations
B. Time-bound investigation and stricter penalties for examination-related offences
C. Introduction of a single national examination for all courses
D. Reservation for economically weaker candidates in all examinations
Answer: B. Time-bound investigation and stricter penalties for examination-related offences
Explanation: The proposed legislation provides for stringent punishment, higher fines, and time-bound investigation into offences such as question paper leaks, organised cheating, and other unfair means in public examinations.
13. The Supreme Court recently sought the Centre’s response on a petition concerning the interpretation of the “merger exception” under which Schedule of the Constitution?
A. Eighth Schedule
B. Ninth Schedule
C. Tenth Schedule
D. Twelfth Schedule
Answer: C. Tenth Schedule
Explanation: The Supreme Court sought the Centre’s reply on a petition challenging the interpretation of the “merger exception” under the Tenth Schedule, which contains the anti-defection law. The petition argues that the current interpretation could weaken anti-defection provisions.
14. The anti-defection law in India was introduced through which Constitutional Amendment?
A. 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976
B. 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978
C. 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1985
D. 61st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1989
Answer: C. 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1985
Explanation: The 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1985 inserted the Tenth Schedule into the Constitution to curb political defections. It was enacted during the tenure of Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi.
15. The “merger exception” under the Tenth Schedule protects legislators from disqualification if at least what proportion of members of a legislature party merge with another political party?
A. One-third
B. One-half
C. Two-thirds
D. Three-fourths
Answer: C. Two-thirds
Explanation: Under the Tenth Schedule, disqualification does not apply if at least two-thirds of the members of a legislature party agree to merge with another political party. This provision was introduced after the 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003, which removed the earlier one-third split provision.
16. The Ministry of External Affairs recently summoned the Ambassador of which country following an attack on a merchant vessel in the Black Sea?
A. Russia
B. Ukraine
C. Türkiye
D. Romania
Answer: B. Ukraine
Explanation: India summoned the Ukrainian Ambassador after an attack on a merchant ship in the Black Sea that affected Indian nationals. India reiterated its commitment to the safety of seafarers and freedom of navigation.
17. The Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA), under which a former Chhattisgarh official was arrested, came into force in:
A. 2000
B. 2002
C. 2005
D. 2008
Answer: B. 2002
Explanation: The Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA), 2002 is India’s principal law to combat money laundering and enable the attachment and confiscation of proceeds of crime. The Enforcement Directorate (ED) is the primary agency responsible for enforcing the Act.
18. Who won the 2026 Fields Medal, becoming the first Chinese national to receive the prestigious award?
A. Jacob Tsimerman
B. John Pardon
C. Hong Wang
D. Maryna Viazovska
Answer: C. Hong Wang
Explanation: Hong Wang was awarded the 2026 Fields Medal for outstanding contributions to mathematics. He became the first Chinese national and only the third woman to receive the honour.
The Fields Medal is awarded every four years by the International Mathematical Union (IMU) to recognize outstanding mathematical achievements.
19. The Fields Medal is awarded to mathematicians who are generally below what age?
A. 30 years
B. 35 years
C. 40 years
D. 45 years
Answer: C. 40 years
Explanation: The Fields Medal is awarded to mathematicians under the age of 40, making it one of the most prestigious recognitions for young researchers in mathematics.
20. According to the science feature on urban water management, which of the following is a major challenge faced by many Indian cities?
A. Excessive desalination capacity
B. High non-revenue water (NRW) losses
C. Declining groundwater recharge due to snowfall
D. Complete dependence on recycled water
Answer: B. High non-revenue water (NRW) losses
Explanation: The article highlights that many Indian cities lose a significant share of treated water as Non-Revenue Water (NRW) due to leakage, theft, and metering inefficiencies. Reducing NRW is essential for improving urban water security.
21. The Government of India recently introduced the Corporate Average Fuel Efficiency (CAFE) III norms primarily to:
A. Promote ethanol blending only
B. Improve fuel efficiency and reduce vehicular carbon emissions
C. Increase imports of electric vehicles
D. Ban internal combustion engine (ICE) vehicles
Answer: B. Improve fuel efficiency and reduce vehicular carbon emissions
Explanation: The proposed CAFE III norms aim to make vehicles more fuel-efficient and reduce carbon emissions. They form part of India’s strategy to improve energy security, reduce oil imports, and support the transition to cleaner mobility.
22. The Corporate Average Fuel Efficiency (CAFE) standards in India are applicable to:
A. Individual vehicle owners
B. Heavy commercial vehicles only
C. Average fuel efficiency of a manufacturer’s passenger vehicle fleet
D. Two-wheelers only
Answer: C. Average fuel efficiency of a manufacturer’s passenger vehicle fleet
Explanation: CAFE standards evaluate the average fuel efficiency of a manufacturer’s passenger vehicle fleet, rather than individual models. Manufacturers must ensure that their fleet meets the prescribed fuel-efficiency targets.
23. The implementation of stricter CAFE norms is expected to primarily help India by:
A. Increasing crude oil imports
B. Reducing dependence on imported crude oil and lowering emissions
C. Eliminating the need for public transport
D. Increasing petrol consumption
Answer: B. Reducing dependence on imported crude oil and lowering emissions
Explanation: Stricter fuel-efficiency norms reduce fuel consumption, thereby lowering greenhouse gas emissions and India’s dependence on imported crude oil, improving both environmental and energy security.
24. According to the editorial on Artificial Intelligence (AI), achieving Viksit Bharat 2047 requires AI that is:
A. Focused only on manufacturing
B. Accessible only to urban populations
C. Inclusive and beneficial to informal workers and women
D. Limited to defence applications
Answer: C. Inclusive and beneficial to informal workers and women
Explanation: The editorial emphasizes that AI policies should ensure inclusive growth, particularly benefiting informal workers, women, rural communities, and small enterprises, so that technological progress does not widen existing inequalities.
25. According to the Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) data discussed in the article, which educational group has the highest unemployment rate in India?
A. Not literate
B. Primary educated
C. Secondary educated
D. Graduates and above
Answer: D. Graduates and above
Explanation: The article, based on PLFS data, highlights that graduates and above have the highest unemployment rate (22.7%), indicating a mismatch between higher education and employment opportunities in India.
26. The Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) is conducted by which organisation?
A. NITI Aayog
B. National Statistical Office (NSO)
C. Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
D. Ministry of Labour and Employment
Answer: B. National Statistical Office (NSO)
Explanation: The Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) is conducted by the National Statistical Office (NSO) under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI). It provides official estimates on employment and unemployment in India.
27. Which State has been highlighted in the article as an emerging industrial hub under the “Rayalaseema” development model?
A. Telangana
B. Karnataka
C. Andhra Pradesh
D. Tamil Nadu
Answer: C. Andhra Pradesh
Explanation: The article discusses the transformation of Rayalaseema in Andhra Pradesh into a major industrial hub through investments in manufacturing, renewable energy, electronics, and defence-related industries.
28. The Rayalaseema region of Andhra Pradesh consists of how many districts?
A. Three
B. Four
C. Five
D. Six
Answer: B. Four
Explanation: Rayalaseema comprises Anantapur, Kurnool, YSR Kadapa, and Chittoor districts. It is known for its semi-arid climate and is now being promoted as an industrial growth region.
29. The recently approved National Investment Policy for Urea (NIIP), 2026 primarily aims to:
A. Reduce fertilizer subsidies completely
B. Promote fresh investment in domestic urea production
C. Ban the import of urea
D. Privatise all fertilizer companies
Answer: B. Promote fresh investment in domestic urea production
Explanation: The National Investment Policy for Urea (NIIP), 2026 seeks to encourage new investments in urea manufacturing, improve domestic production capacity, and reduce India’s dependence on imported urea.
30. The National Investment Policy for Urea (NIIP), 2026 replaces which earlier policy?
A. New Urea Policy, 2015
B. New Investment Policy (NIP), 2012
C. Fertilizer Control Order, 1985
D. National Fertilizer Policy, 2008
Answer: B. New Investment Policy (NIP), 2012
Explanation: The NIIP, 2026 replaces the New Investment Policy (NIP), 2012 (later amended in 2014) to provide a revised framework for boosting investment and enhancing self-reliance in urea production.
31. Which Union Minister recently took charge of the Ministry of Education, following a Cabinet reshuffle?
A. Dharmendra Pradhan
B. Ashwini Vaishnaw
C. Prahlad Joshi
D. Kiren Rijiju
Answer: C. Prahlad Joshi
Explanation: Prahlad Joshi assumed charge as the Union Minister of Education. He inherits several ongoing education reforms, including implementation of the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020, the National Curriculum Framework, and teacher-training initiatives.
32. The recent controversy over On-Screen Marking (OSM), discussed in the news, is associated with which examination?
A. NEET-UG
B. JEE Main
C. CBSE Class XII Board Examination
D. CUET-UG
Answer: C. CBSE Class XII Board Examination
Explanation: The controversy relates to the CBSE Class XII Board Examination, where concerns were raised over the On-Screen Marking (OSM) system, including evaluation errors, transparency, and the effectiveness of the re-evaluation process.
33. Sarnath was recently recognised as India’s 45th UNESCO World Heritage Site. Sarnath is most closely associated with which event in the life of Gautama Buddha?
A. Birth
B. Enlightenment
C. First Sermon (Dharmachakra Pravartana)
D. Mahaparinirvana
Answer: C. First Sermon
(Dharmachakra Pravartana)
Explanation: Sarnath (Uttar Pradesh) is the place where Gautama Buddha delivered his first sermon, known as the Dharmachakra Pravartana (Turning of the Wheel of Dharma), after attaining enlightenment at Bodh Gaya. It has recently been inscribed as India’s 45th UNESCO World Heritage Site.
34. According to a recent industry report, India’s operational data centre capacity is expected to reach approximately how much by 2030?
A. 6 GW
B. 8 GW
C. 12 GW
D. 20 GW
Answer: C. 12 GW
Explanation: India’s operational data centre capacity is projected to rise from about 2 GW at present to 12 GW by 2030, driven by rapid adoption of Artificial Intelligence (AI), cloud computing, and the country’s expanding digital economy.
35. Which factor has been identified as the primary driver of India’s rapidly growing demand for data centres?
A. Growth in tourism
B. Artificial Intelligence (AI) and cloud computing
C. Expansion of railway infrastructure
D. Increase in gold imports
Answer: B. Artificial Intelligence (AI) and cloud computing
Explanation: The surge in AI applications, cloud services, and digital infrastructure is expected to significantly increase the demand for data centres and high-capacity computing facilities in India.
36. GIFT City, recently in the news, is located in which State?
A. Maharashtra
B. Gujarat
C. Karnataka
D. Telangana
Answer: B. Gujarat
Explanation: GIFT (Gujarat International Finance Tec-City) is India’s first operational International Financial Services Centre (IFSC). It is located between Ahmedabad and Gandhinagar in Gujarat and is being developed as a global financial hub.
37. Shein, recently in the news for its proposed Hong Kong listing, is an e-commerce company primarily associated with which sector?
A. Consumer electronics
B. Fast fashion
C. Food delivery
D. FinTech
Answer: B. Fast fashion
Explanation: Shein is a global fast-fashion e-commerce company known for selling low-cost apparel and accessories. It is seeking a listing in Hong Kong after regulatory hurdles affected its earlier IPO plans.
38. The article on critical minerals highlights that these minerals are primarily essential for manufacturing:
A. Fertilizers only
B. Textiles only
C. Electric vehicles, batteries, semiconductors, and defence equipment
D. Cement and steel only
Answer: C. Electric vehicles, batteries, semiconductors, and defence equipment
Explanation: Critical minerals such as rare earth elements, lithium, cobalt, and graphite are indispensable for EV batteries, semiconductors, renewable energy technologies, and defence manufacturing, making them strategically important.
39. Which country currently dominates the global processing and refining of many critical minerals, according to the report?
A. Australia
B. Canada
C. China
D. Japan
Answer: C. China
Explanation: China dominates the global supply chain for many critical minerals, especially in processing and refining. This has prompted several countries, including the United States and India, to diversify their supply chains.
40. Why are critical minerals considered strategically important?
A. They are mainly used in the textile industry.
B. They are essential for clean energy technologies and national security applications.
C. They are used only in jewellery manufacturing.
D. They are required only for food processing industries.
Answer: B. They are essential for clean energy technologies and national security applications.
Explanation: Critical minerals are vital for the production of electric vehicles, renewable energy systems, advanced electronics, semiconductors, aerospace, and defence equipment, making them crucial for both economic growth and national security.
41. Which strategically important maritime chokepoint was in the news after Iran reiterated that it continues to control it?
A. Strait of Malacca
B. Bab-el-Mandeb Strait
C. Strait of Hormuz
D. Bosporus Strait
Answer: C. Strait of Hormuz
Explanation: Iran stated that it continues to control the Strait of Hormuz, through which nearly one-fifth of the world’s seaborne oil trade passes. The Strait is one of the world’s most critical energy chokepoints.
42. The Bab-el-Mandeb Strait connects the Red Sea with which body of water?
A. Arabian Sea
B. Gulf of Oman
C. Gulf of Aden
D. Persian Gulf
Answer: C. Gulf of Aden
Explanation: The Bab-el-Mandeb Strait is located between Yemen and Djibouti/Eritrea and connects the Red Sea to the Gulf of Aden, forming a vital international shipping route.
43. Which country recently announced that it is seeking a joint security agreement with Israel?
A. Jordan
B. Lebanon
C. Syria
D. Egypt
Answer: C. Syria
Explanation: Syria announced that it is seeking a joint security agreement with Israel aimed at reducing tensions and improving regional stability. The development marks a significant diplomatic shift in the region.
44. The Bab el-Mandeb Strait separates Yemen from which African countries?
A. Somalia and Kenya
B. Egypt and Sudan
C. Djibouti and Eritrea
D. Ethiopia and Sudan
Answer: C. Djibouti and Eritrea
Explanation: The Bab el-Mandeb Strait lies between Yemen on the Arabian Peninsula and Djibouti and Eritrea in the Horn of Africa, making it one of the world’s most strategically important maritime passages.
45. The Rohingya, recently in the news over school closures in Malaysia, are an ethnic minority primarily from:
A. Bangladesh
B. Myanmar
C. Thailand
D. Indonesia
Answer: B. Myanmar
Explanation: The Rohingya are a predominantly Muslim ethnic minority from Rakhine State, Myanmar. Many have sought refuge in neighbouring countries due to persecution and violence.
46. Which country has witnessed the emergence of former Army Chief Gadi Eizenkot as a major political challenger?
A. Lebanon
B. Jordan
C. Israel
D. Syria
Answer: C. Israel
Explanation: Former Israel Defense Forces (IDF) Chief Gadi Eizenkot has emerged as a key political rival to Prime Minister Benjamin Netanyahu, according to recent opinion polls.
47. Indian weightlifter Gyaneshwari won the silver medal in which weight category at the 2026 Commonwealth Games?
A. 49 kg
B. 53 kg
C. 59 kg
D. 64 kg
Answer: B. 53 kg
Explanation: India’s Gyaneshwari secured the silver medal in the women’s 53 kg weightlifting event at the 2026 Commonwealth Games. She successfully completed all her attempts and finished behind Nigeria’s Didih.
48. Which Indian weightlifter won the bronze medal in the women’s 58 kg event at the 2026 Commonwealth Games?
A. Mirabai Chanu
B. Bindyarani Devi
C. Harjinder Kaur
D. Sanjita Chanu
Answer: B. Bindyarani Devi
Explanation: Bindyarani Devi won the bronze medal in the women’s 58 kg weightlifting event, adding another medal to India’s tally at the Commonwealth Games.
49. Which Indian shooter won the gold medal in the women’s 25m pistol event at the ISSF World Cup?
A. Manu Bhaker
B. Rhythm Sangwan
C. Esha Singh
D. Suruchi Singh
Answer: C. Esha Singh
Explanation: Esha Singh won the gold medal in the women’s 25m pistol event at the ISSF World Cup by registering 40 hits in the final. It marked another major international achievement for the young Indian shooter.
50. Which Indian shooter won the bronze medal in the women’s 25m pistol event at the same ISSF World Cup?
A. Sift Kaur Samra
B. Manu Bhaker
C. Anish Bhanwala
D. Mehuli Ghosh
Answer: B. Manu Bhaker
Explanation: Manu Bhaker, a double medallist at the Paris 2024 Olympics, secured the bronze medal after winning a shoot-off in the women’s 25m pistol event, giving India a double podium finish.
51. Which Indian franchise won its second Ultimate Table Tennis (UTT) title?
A. Chennai Lions
B. Goa Challengers
C. U Mumba TT
D. Dabang Delhi TTC
Answer: C. U Mumba TT
Explanation: U Mumba TT defeated Goa Challengers to win its second Ultimate Table Tennis (UTT) title, becoming one of the most successful teams in the league.
52. Which cycling event did Tadej Pogačar win for a record fifth time, according to the report?
A. Giro d’Italia
B. Vuelta a España
C. Tour de France
D. Paris–Roubaix
Answer: C. Tour de France
Explanation: Tadej Pogačar won the 2026 Tour de France, becoming only the fourth cyclist in history to claim the prestigious title five times, joining an elite group of champions.
53. Which young Indian cricketer became India’s youngest international centurion after scoring a century against Zimbabwe?
A. Yashasvi Jaiswal
B. Vaibhav Suryavanshi
C. Shubman Gill
D. Tilak Varma
Answer: B. Vaibhav Suryavanshi
Explanation: Vaibhav Suryavanshi became India’s youngest international centurion by scoring a century against Zimbabwe. The 15-year-old opener impressed with his fearless batting and is regarded as one of India’s brightest young cricketing talents.
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