
1. The Supreme Court has ruled that pellet guns may be used by police only under what circumstances?
A. During any public protest
B. Only against violent criminals
C. In exceptional circumstances following graded response principles
D. Only with prior approval of the State Government
Answer: C. In exceptional circumstances following graded response principles
Explanation: The Supreme Court held that the use of pellet guns remains part of a graded police response and may be permitted only in exceptional circumstances. The Court emphasized that any such use must satisfy the principles of necessity, proportionality, and reasonableness, and should not be employed to suppress peaceful protests.
2. PM CARES Fund was established primarily for which purpose?
A. Rural infrastructure development
B. COVID-19 relief and public health emergencies
C. Agricultural modernization
D. Disaster insurance for States
Answer: B. COVID-19 relief and public health emergencies
Explanation: The PM CARES Fund was created in March 2020 to support relief efforts during the COVID-19 pandemic and other public health emergencies. It receives voluntary contributions and is intended to finance emergency response and disaster relief measures.
3. Why has the PM CARES Fund come under public discussion recently?
A. It has been merged with the National Disaster Response Fund.
B. The government has decided to dissolve it.
C. Activists have raised concerns over denial of access to its audit statements.
D. Parliament has made CAG audit mandatory.
Answer: C. Activists have raised concerns over denial of access to its audit statements.
Explanation: Activists have questioned the lack of public access to the PM CARES Fund’s audit statements, arguing that greater transparency and accountability are necessary regarding its finances and functioning.
4. Which State has got its first National Investigation Agency (NIA) police station?
A. Odisha
B. Bihar
C. West Bengal
D. Jharkhand
Answer: C. West Bengal
Explanation: The Union Ministry of Home Affairs has notified West Bengal’s first dedicated National Investigation Agency (NIA) police station in Kolkata’s New Town. The station will investigate offences related to terrorism and other cases under the NIA Act, improving coordination between the Centre and the State.
The National Investigation Agency (NIA) is India’s premier counter-terrorism investigation agency functioning under the Ministry of Home Affairs. It investigates offences affecting national security under the NIA Act, 2008.
5. PM SHRI Scheme is primarily related to which sector?
A. Rural Employment
B. School Education
C. Public Health
D. Higher Education
Answer: B. School Education
Explanation: PM SHRI (PM Schools for Rising India) is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme aimed at developing selected schools into model institutions aligned with the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020. The scheme focuses on quality education, modern infrastructure, and holistic learning.
6. PM SHRI schools are being developed in line with which National Policy?
A. National Skill Development Policy, 2015
B. National Education Policy (NEP), 2020
C. National Youth Policy, 2014
D. National Digital Education Policy, 2022
Answer: B. National Education Policy (NEP), 2020
Explanation: PM SHRI schools are designed to showcase the implementation of the National Education Policy (NEP), 2020 by providing high-quality, inclusive and technology-enabled education.
7. The Tamil Nadu Government recently signed an MoU to establish an Australian university campus in collaboration with which university?
A. University of Melbourne
B. Monash University
C. University of Western Australia
D. University of Sydney
Answer: C. University of Western Australia
Explanation: The Tamil Nadu Government signed an agreement with the University of Western Australia to establish the university’s first international campus in India. The initiative is expected to strengthen higher education, research and innovation in the State.
8. Researchers at BITS Pilani, Hyderabad have developed a low-energy system to treat which type of waste?
A. Plastic waste
B. Biomedical waste
C. Biopharmaceutical wastewater
D. Electronic waste
Answer: C. Biopharmaceutical wastewater
Explanation: Researchers at BITS Pilani, Hyderabad have developed a low-energy treatment system for biopharmaceutical wastewater. The technology combines advanced oxidation and biological treatment to disinfect wastewater while reducing energy consumption.
The technology integrates electrochemical disinfection with biological treatment to eliminate pathogens and recover energy efficiently, making wastewater treatment more sustainable.
9. Under the Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Act, 2023, the selection committee for appointing the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) consists of:
A. Prime Minister, Chief Justice of India and Leader of Opposition
B. Prime Minister, Union Home Minister and Chief Justice of India
C. Prime Minister, Union Home Minister and Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha
D. Prime Minister, Speaker of Lok Sabha and Chief Justice of India
Answer: C. Prime Minister, Union Home Minister and Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha
Explanation: The Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Act, 2023 provides that the selection committee comprises the Prime Minister, the Union Home Minister, and the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha (or the leader of the largest opposition party).
Article 324 of the Constitution vests the superintendence, direction and control of elections in the Election Commission of India and empowers Parliament to regulate the appointment and service conditions of the Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners.
10. The Prime Minister recently chaired a meeting of the Cabinet Committee on Security (CCS) to review the impact of the West Asia conflict. Which of the following is NOT a member of the Cabinet Committee on Security?
A. Prime Minister
B. Minister of Defence
C. Minister of Home Affairs
D. Minister of Parliamentary Affairs
Answer: D. Minister of Parliamentary Affairs
Explanation: The Cabinet Committee on Security consists of the Prime Minister, the Ministers of Defence, Home Affairs, Finance, and External Affairs. It is the highest decision-making body on matters relating to national security.
11. Parliament recently passed the Prevention of Unfair Means in Public Examinations Bill, 2026. The Bill primarily aims to:
A. Regulate private coaching institutes
B. Prevent unfair means and paper leaks in public examinations
C. Conduct online examinations only
D. Establish a National Examination Commission
Answer: B. Prevent unfair means and paper leaks in public examinations
Explanation: The Prevention of Unfair Means in Public Examinations Bill, 2026 seeks to curb the use of unfair means, including paper leaks and organized examination fraud, in public examinations to enhance transparency and credibility in the recruitment process.
12. According to a study cited by Union Minister Nitin Gadkari, the use of E20 fuel can improve fuel economy by approximately:
A. 1%–2%
B. 2%–6%
C. 8%–10%
D. 12%–15%
Answer: B. 2%–6%
Explanation: A study cited by the Union Minister for Road Transport and Highways found that petrol blended with 20% ethanol (E20) can improve fuel economy by about 2% to 6%, depending on vehicle category and operating conditions.
13. The world’s first reported base-editing therapy for a brain disorder was recently used to treat a child suffering from which rare disease?
A. Huntington’s disease
B. Dravet syndrome
C. Pitt-Hopkins syndrome
D. Tay-Sachs disease
Answer: C. Pitt-Hopkins syndrome
Explanation: A six-year-old girl in China reportedly became the first patient to receive a personalized base-editing therapy for Pitt-Hopkins syndrome, a rare neurodevelopmental disorder caused by mutations in the TCF4 gene. The case has reignited debate over the safety and regulation of experimental gene-editing therapies.
14. Base editing is a gene-editing technique primarily derived from which technology?
A. RNA interference (RNAi)
B. CRISPR-Cas9
C. Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)
D. Recombinant DNA technology
Answer: B. CRISPR-Cas9
Explanation: Base editing is an advanced form of CRISPR-Cas9 technology that enables precise changes to individual DNA bases without creating double-strand breaks, thereby reducing unintended genetic alterations.
15. Pitt-Hopkins syndrome is primarily caused by mutations in which gene?
A. BRCA1
B. CFTR
C. TCF4
D. TP53
Answer: C. TCF4
Explanation: Pitt-Hopkins syndrome is a rare genetic disorder caused by mutations in the TCF4 gene. It is characterized by developmental delay, intellectual disability, and breathing abnormalities.
16. According to the World Health Organization (WHO), liver diseases account for approximately how many deaths globally every year?
A. Around 5 lakh
B. Around 10 lakh
C. Around 20 lakh
D. Around 50 lakh
Answer: C. Around 20 lakh
Explanation: According to the World Health Organization (WHO), liver diseases account for around two million deaths globally every year, making them a significant public health challenge.
17. India Stack is an example of which type of digital public infrastructure?
A. Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI)
B. Digital Private Infrastructure (DPrI)
C. National Cloud Infrastructure (NCI)
D. Public Data Exchange Network (PDEN)
Answer: A. Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI)
Explanation: India Stack is a Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI) comprising interoperable digital platforms such as Aadhaar, UPI, DigiLocker, and Account Aggregator. It enables secure digital identity, payments, document sharing, and data exchange, and is increasingly being studied as a global model for digital governance.
18. Which of the following is NOT a component of India Stack?
A. Aadhaar
B. Unified Payments Interface (UPI)
C. DigiLocker
D. National Knowledge Network (NKN)
Answer: D. National Knowledge Network (NKN)
Explanation: India Stack includes platforms such as Aadhaar, UPI, DigiLocker, eSign, Account Aggregator, and DEPA. The National Knowledge Network (NKN) is a separate initiative for connecting educational and research institutions.
19. DEPA, often seen in discussions on Digital Public Infrastructure, stands for:
A. Digital Economy Protection Authority
B. Data Empowerment and Protection Architecture
C. Digital Enterprise Privacy Act
D. Data Exchange and Processing Agreement
Answer: B. Data Empowerment and Protection Architecture
Explanation: DEPA (Data Empowerment and Protection Architecture) is a consent-based data-sharing framework that enables individuals to securely share their personal data with service providers while retaining control over their information.
20. According to the India Meteorological Department (IMD), a cloudburst is officially defined as rainfall of at least:
A. 50 mm in one hour
B. 75 mm in one hour
C. 100 mm in one hour
D. 150 mm in one hour
Answer: C. 100 mm in one hour
Explanation: The India Meteorological Department (IMD) defines a cloudburst as rainfall of 100 mm or more within one hour over an area of about 20–30 sq. km. Such events are highly localized and often trigger flash floods and landslides, especially in mountainous regions.
Cloudbursts are most common in the Himalayan region, where moist monsoon winds are forced to rise over mountain slopes (orographic lifting), leading to intense localized rainfall.
21. Which weather phenomenon is primarily responsible for the formation of cloudbursts in mountainous areas?
A. El Niño
B. Orographic lifting
C. Temperature inversion
D. Jet stream circulation
Answer: B. Orographic lifting
Explanation: Cloudbursts are mainly caused by orographic lifting, in which moisture-laden winds rise over mountains, cool rapidly, and produce intense localized rainfall within a short period.
22. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) recently released data showing a decline in the usage of which payment instrument?
A. Credit cards
B. Debit cards
C. Unified Payments Interface (UPI)
D. Prepaid Payment Instruments (PPIs)
Answer: B. Debit cards
Explanation: RBI data indicate that the use of debit cards has been declining while digital payment modes such as UPI continue to expand rapidly. The report also highlights that maintenance charges and other fees on debit cards have increased in recent years.
23. According to the World Gold Council (WGC), which investment avenue has recently gained popularity in India despite a fall in jewellery demand?
A. Sovereign Gold Bonds
B. Gold Exchange Traded Funds (Gold ETFs)
C. Gold Monetisation Scheme
D. Digital Gold Wallets
Answer: B. Gold Exchange Traded Funds (Gold ETFs)
Explanation: The World Gold Council (WGC) reported that although jewellery demand has weakened due to high gold prices, investments in Gold Exchange Traded Funds (Gold ETFs) have increased significantly.
24. The Goods and Services Tax Network (GSTN) recently deferred enhancements to which digital system after receiving industry feedback?
A. E-Invoice Portal
B. GST Suvidha Portal
C. E-Way Bill System
D. GST Return Filing Portal
Answer: C. E-Way Bill System
Explanation: GSTN postponed proposed enhancements to the e-Way Bill system after receiving feedback from industry stakeholders to ensure smoother implementation and minimize disruption to businesses.
25. The e-Way Bill system under GST is primarily used for:
A. Filing annual income tax returns
B. Tracking the movement of goods above the prescribed value
C. Registering new GST taxpayers
D. Processing customs declarations
Answer: B. Tracking the movement of goods above the prescribed value
Explanation: The e-Way Bill is an electronically generated document required for the movement of goods exceeding the prescribed value under the GST regime, helping ensure tax compliance and reducing tax evasion.
26. Brookfield recently launched a $600 million renewable energy platform in India. The platform will primarily focus on developing:
A. Nuclear power plants
B. Solar, wind and battery energy storage projects
C. Coal-based thermal power plants
D. Hydroelectric dams only
Answer: B. Solar, wind and battery energy storage projects
Explanation: Brookfield launched a $600 million renewable energy platform to accelerate investments in solar power, wind energy, and battery energy storage systems (BESS), supporting India’s clean energy transition.
27. A Russian missile recently fell in which NATO member country, raising international concern?
A. Romania
B. Lithuania
C. Poland
D. Latvia
Answer: C. Poland
Explanation: A Russian missile reportedly fell in Poland, a NATO member, during attacks on Ukraine. The incident drew international attention as any attack involving NATO territory has significant security implications, although NATO stated there was no evidence that Poland was the intended target.
NATO was established on 4 April 1949 through the North Atlantic Treaty to provide collective defence among its member countries. Under Article 5, an armed attack against one member is considered an attack against all.
28. Which international waterway could be affected by the recent drone strike near Egypt’s Damietta Port?
A. Panama Canal
B. Strait of Hormuz
C. Bosporus Strait
D. Suez Canal
Answer: D. Suez Canal
Explanation: A drone strike near Damietta Port in Egypt raised concerns over maritime security close to the Suez Canal, one of the world’s busiest and most strategically important shipping routes connecting the Mediterranean Sea with the Red Sea.
29. The Suez Canal connects which two water bodies?
A. Mediterranean Sea and Black Sea
B. Mediterranean Sea and Red Sea
C. Red Sea and Arabian Sea
D. Persian Gulf and Gulf of Oman
Answer: B. Mediterranean Sea and Red Sea
Explanation: The Suez Canal is an artificial waterway in Egypt connecting the Mediterranean Sea with the Red Sea, providing the shortest maritime route between Europe and Asia.
30. Pavel Durov, recently in the news, is the founder of which messaging platform?
A. Signal
B. Telegram
C. WhatsApp
D. Viber
Answer: B. Telegram
Explanation: Pavel Durov is the founder of Telegram, a cloud-based messaging platform. He was recently in the news after Russian authorities accused the platform of failing to curb activities allegedly linked to extremist groups and cybercrime.
31. Mount Etna, recently in the news for renewed volcanic activity, is located in:
A. Iceland
B. Italy
C. Greece
D. Indonesia
Answer: B. Italy
Explanation: Mount Etna is an active stratovolcano located on the island of Sicily, Italy. It is one of the world’s most active volcanoes and a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
32. Which Indian cricketer recently announced his retirement from all formats of international cricket?
A. Cheteshwar Pujara
B. Ajinkya Rahane
C. Ravichandran Ashwin
D. Shikhar Dhawan
Answer: B. Ajinkya Rahane
Explanation: Former Indian Test vice-captain Ajinkya Rahane announced his retirement from all formats of international cricket. He played a key role in India’s overseas Test successes and captained India to the historic Border-Gavaskar Trophy series victory in Australia (2020–21).
Ajinkya Rahane captained India to a memorable 2–1 Test series victory in Australia during the 2020–21 Border-Gavaskar Trophy, regarded as one of India’s greatest overseas Test triumphs.
33. South African swimmer Chad le Clos recently became the most decorated athlete in the history of which multi-sport event?
A. Olympic Games
B. Commonwealth Games
C. African Games
D. World University Games
Answer: B. Commonwealth Games
Explanation: South African swimmer Chad le Clos became the most decorated athlete in Commonwealth Games history, surpassing previous records with his medal-winning performances.
34. Indian long jumper Sreeshankar recently won a silver medal at the Commonwealth Games and has now set his sights on winning gold at which upcoming event?
A. Olympic Games
B. Asian Games
C. World Athletics Championships
D. Diamond League Final
Answer: B. Asian Games
Explanation: Indian long jumper Murali Sreeshankar, after winning a silver medal at the Commonwealth Games, stated that his next major target is to win the Asian Games gold medal.
35. Indian para-athlete Dilip Mahadu Gavit recently won the gold medal in which event at the Commonwealth Games 2026?
A. Men’s 200m T47
B. Men’s 400m T47
C. Men’s 100m T47
D. Men’s Long Jump T47
Answer: C. Men’s 100m T47
Explanation: Dilip Mahadu Gavit won the gold medal in the Men’s 100m T47 event at the Commonwealth Games 2026, setting a new Games Record.
36. Which Indian para-athlete won the silver medal behind Dilip Mahadu Gavit in the Men’s 100m T47 event at the Commonwealth Games 2026?
A. Praveen Kumar
B. Mohammed Basil Morssinganakathi
C. Mariyappan Thangavelu
D. Nishad Kumar
Answer: B. Mohammed Basil Morssinganakathi
Explanation: Mohammed Basil Morssinganakathi won the silver medal, giving India a historic gold-silver (1–2) finish in the Men’s 100m T47 event.
37. The T47 classification in para-athletics is meant for athletes with impairment primarily affecting:
A. Vision
B. Hearing
C. Upper limbs
D. Lower limbs
Answer: C. Upper limbs
Explanation: T47 is a para-athletics classification for athletes with upper-limb impairments, such as arm deficiency or reduced upper-limb function.
38. Which Indian paddler won the men’s singles title at the 22nd Commonwealth Table Tennis Championships?
A. G. Sathiyan
B. Sharath Kamal
C. Manush Shah
D. Harmeet Desai
Answer: C. Manush Shah
Explanation: Manush Shah won the men’s singles title at the 22nd Commonwealth Table Tennis Championships, defeating Malaysia’s Wong Qi Shen in the final. He also helped India win the men’s team title.
39. Who won the women’s singles title at the 22nd Commonwealth Table Tennis Championships?
A. Sreeja Akula
B. Ayhika Mukherjee
C. Manika Batra
D. Diya Chitale
Answer: A. Sreeja Akula
Explanation: Sreeja Akula won the women’s singles title after defeating Malaysia’s Karen Lyne in the final. She also played a key role in India’s women’s team championship.
40. Which five-time FIFA World Cup-winning nation will play an international friendly against India in Kolkata on 3 October?
A. Germany
B. Argentina
C. Brazil
D. Spain
Answer: C. Brazil
Explanation: Brazil will play an international football friendly against India at Kolkata’s Yuva Bharati Krirangan (Salt Lake Stadium) on 3 October. It will be one of India’s biggest international football fixtures.
41. Who was appointed as England’s new head coach?
A. Brendon McCullum
B. Gary Kirsten
C. Stephen Fleming
D. Mike Hesson
Answer: C. Stephen Fleming
Explanation: Former New Zealand captain Stephen Fleming was appointed as England’s head coach, bringing extensive international coaching experience.
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