1. Which country emerged as India’s largest crude oil supplier in May 2026 with a share exceeding 40% of total imports?
A. Saudi Arabia
B. Iraq
C. Russia
D. United Arab Emirates
Answer: C. Russia
Explanation: Russia’s share in India’s crude oil imports crossed 40% in May 2026, the highest level in recent months. India has continued purchasing discounted Russian crude while diversifying its energy sources.
2. Which flagship Centrally Sponsored Scheme aims to provide cooked meals to children in government and government-aided schools?
A. PM POSHAN Scheme
B. PM-KISAN
C. Mission Shakti
D. PM-JANMAN
Answer: A. PM POSHAN Scheme
Explanation: PM POSHAN (formerly the Mid-Day Meal Scheme) provides hot cooked meals to students in government and government-aided schools to improve nutrition, increase enrolment, and reduce dropout rates.
3. The PM POSHAN Scheme was previously known as:
A. National Nutrition Mission
B. Mid-Day Meal Scheme
C. Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS)
D. Bal Vatika Programme
Answer: B. Mid-Day Meal Scheme
Explanation: The Mid-Day Meal Scheme was renamed PM POSHAN (Pradhan Mantri Poshan Shakti Nirman) in 2021. It continues to be one of the world’s largest school feeding programmes.
4. The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS) guarantees how many days of wage employment annually to every rural household?
A. 50 days
B. 75 days
C. 100 days
D. 150 days
Answer: C. 100 days
Explanation: MGNREGS is a rights-based employment programme that guarantees 100 days of wage employment each financial year to every rural household whose adult members volunteer for unskilled manual work.
The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) was enacted in 2005 and came into force in 2006, making it one of India’s largest social security and employment programmes.
5. Which High Court dismissed a petition challenging the mandatory recital of Hindu prayers in State government schools?
A. Allahabad High Court
B. Madras High Court
C. Chhattisgarh High Court
D. Rajasthan High Court
Answer: C. Chhattisgarh High Court
Explanation: The Chhattisgarh High Court dismissed the petition after observing that the petitioners had failed to place sufficient material on record to establish a violation of fundamental rights.
6. The Amarnath Cave Shrine is located in which Union Territory?
A. Ladakh
B. Jammu and Kashmir
C. Chandigarh
D. Delhi
Answer: B. Jammu and Kashmir
Explanation: The Amarnath Cave is situated in the Anantnag district of Jammu and Kashmir at an altitude of about 3,888 metres, and attracts lakhs of pilgrims every year during the annual Amarnath Yatra.
7. The National Disaster Response Force (NDRF), seen in the Wayanad rescue operation, functions under which Ministry?
A. Ministry of Defence
B. Ministry of Home Affairs
C. Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
D. Ministry of Rural Development
Answer: B. Ministry of Home Affairs
Explanation: The National Disaster Response Force (NDRF) is India’s specialized disaster response agency functioning under the Ministry of Home Affairs. It is deployed during natural and man-made disasters for search, rescue, and relief operations.
8. Which constitutional provision empowers the Supreme Court to grant Special Leave to Appeal (SLP) against judgments of any court or tribunal in India?
A. Article 32
B. Article 136
C. Article 226
D. Article 356
Answer: B. Article 136
Explanation: Article 136 of the Constitution empowers the Supreme Court to grant Special Leave to Appeal (SLP) against any judgment, decree, determination, sentence, or order passed by any court or tribunal in India (except courts-martial).
9. The National Investigation Agency (NIA), which conducted searches in Vijayawada, was established under which Act?
A. Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, 1967
B. National Investigation Agency Act, 2008
C. National Security Act, 1980
D. Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002
Answer: B. National Investigation Agency Act, 2008
Explanation: The National Investigation Agency (NIA) was established through the National Investigation Agency Act, 2008 following the Mumbai terror attacks of 2008 to investigate offences affecting national security.
10. The Prambanan Temple, where India and Indonesia launched a joint restoration project, is dedicated primarily to which deity?
A. Lord Buddha
B. Lord Vishnu
C. Lord Shiva
D. Lord Ganesha
Answer: C. Lord Shiva
Explanation: The Prambanan Temple in Indonesia is the largest Hindu temple complex in the country and is primarily dedicated to Lord Shiva. It is a UNESCO World Heritage Site and an important symbol of India’s cultural links with Southeast Asia.
Prambanan is a 9th-century Hindu temple complex located near Yogyakarta, Indonesia. India and Indonesia have launched a joint conservation and restoration initiative for the monument.
11. The National Commission for Women (NCW), which sought a report on the Rajasthan minor rape case, is a statutory body established under which Act?
A. Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005
B. National Commission for Women Act, 1990
C. Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013
D. Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961
Answer: B. National Commission for Women Act, 1990
Explanation: The National Commission for Women (NCW) was established under the National Commission for Women Act, 1990 and became operational in 1992 to review safeguards for women and address their grievances.
12. The Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) successfully tested which rocket system from the Pinaka Integrated Test Range?
A. BrahMos
B. Agni-V
C. Pinaka Rocket System
D. Akash Missile
Answer: C. Pinaka Rocket System
Explanation: DRDO successfully conducted a flight test of the Pinaka Rocket System, an indigenously developed multi-barrel rocket launcher for the Indian Army. The test validated its guided rocket capabilities and enhanced operational flexibility.
13. According to the latest AISHE report, female enrolment in higher education has increased by over 42% since which academic year?
A. 2010–11
B. 2012–13
C. 2014–15
D. 2016–17
Answer: C. 2014–15
Explanation: The All India Survey on Higher Education (AISHE) reported that female enrolment in higher education has increased by over 42% since the 2014–15 academic year, reflecting steady progress in gender participation.
14. India launched the National Quantum Mission (NQM) in 2023 with an outlay of approximately:
A. ₹2,000 crore
B. ₹4,500 crore
C. ₹6,003 crore
D. ₹10,000 crore
Answer: C. ₹6,003 crore
Explanation: The National Quantum Mission (NQM) was approved in 2023 with a budget of ₹6,003.65 crore for the period 2023–24 to 2030–31. The mission aims to make India a global leader in quantum technologies, including quantum computing, communication, sensing, and materials.
The National Quantum Mission is implemented by the Department of Science and Technology (DST) under the Ministry of Science and Technology to promote research and innovation in quantum technologies.
15. The World Health Organization (WHO) is negotiating a new pandemic treaty primarily to:
A. Replace the International Health Regulations (IHR)
B. Improve global preparedness and coordination for future pandemics
C. Create a global vaccine company
D. Establish a world health tax
Answer: B. Improve global preparedness and coordination for future pandemics
Explanation: WHO member countries are negotiating a Pandemic Agreement (Pandemic Treaty) to strengthen international cooperation in preventing, preparing for, and responding to future pandemics, drawing lessons from COVID-19 and recent Ebola outbreaks.
The World Health Organization (WHO) is a specialized agency of the United Nations headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland, responsible for coordinating international public health.
16. Ebola Virus Disease (EVD), recently in the news, is caused by:
A. A bacterium
B. A fungus
C. A virus belonging to the Filoviridae family
D. A protozoan parasite
Answer: C. A virus belonging to the Filoviridae family
Explanation: Ebola Virus Disease (EVD) is a severe viral hemorrhagic fever caused by viruses of the genus Ebolavirus, which belongs to the Filoviridae family. It spreads through direct contact with infected bodily fluids.
17. Which African country recently witnessed an Ebola outbreak that renewed urgency for finalising the WHO Pandemic Agreement?
A. Uganda
B. Nigeria
C. Democratic Republic of the Congo (DRC)
D. South Africa
Answer: C. Democratic Republic of the Congo (DRC)
Explanation: The recent Ebola outbreak in the Democratic Republic of the Congo (DRC) reinforced the need for stronger international cooperation and accelerated efforts to finalise the WHO Pandemic Agreement to improve preparedness for future global health emergencies.
18. India’s National Population Census is conducted under which Act?
A. Registration of Births and Deaths Act, 1969
B. Census Act, 1948
C. National Population Register Act, 2003
D. Statistics Act, 2008
Answer: B. Census Act, 1948
Explanation: The Census Act, 1948 provides the legal framework for conducting the Population Census in India and ensures the confidentiality of the information collected.
19. The Indian diaspora has become the largest overseas-born community in which country?
A. Canada
B. United Kingdom
C. Australia
D. New Zealand
Answer: C. Australia
Explanation: According to recent Australian data highlighted in the article, people of Indian origin now constitute Australia’s largest overseas-born community, reflecting strong migration driven by education, skilled employment, and business opportunities.
20. Which country is home to the largest Indian diaspora in the world?
A. United Kingdom
B. United States
C. United Arab Emirates
D. Australia
Answer: B. United States
Explanation: The United States hosts the world’s largest Indian diaspora, followed by countries such as the UAE, Malaysia, Saudi Arabia, Canada, and the United Kingdom. The Indian diaspora is one of the largest migrant communities globally.
21. The “Right to be Forgotten” is primarily considered a part of which Fundamental Right under the Indian Constitution?
A. Article 14 – Right to Equality
B. Article 19(1)(a) – Freedom of Speech and Expression
C. Article 21 – Right to Life and Personal Liberty
D. Article 32 – Right to Constitutional Remedies
Answer: C. Article 21 – Right to Life and Personal Liberty
Explanation: The Right to be Forgotten (RTBF) has evolved as a facet of the Right to Privacy, which the Supreme Court recognized as a Fundamental Right under Article 21 in the K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2017) judgment.
22. Which landmark Supreme Court judgment declared the Right to Privacy as a Fundamental Right in India?
A. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973)
B. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978)
C. K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2017)
D. Shreya Singhal v. Union of India (2015)
Answer: C. K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2017)
Explanation: In 2017, a nine-judge Constitution Bench unanimously held that the Right to Privacy is an intrinsic part of Article 21 and other Fundamental Rights.
23. The Digital Personal Data Protection Act (DPDP Act), 2023 primarily deals with:
A. Cyber warfare
B. Regulation of cryptocurrencies
C. Protection and processing of personal digital data
D. Copyright of digital content
Answer: C. Protection and processing of personal digital data
Explanation: The Digital Personal Data Protection (DPDP) Act, 2023 provides the legal framework for the collection, processing, storage, and protection of personal digital data in India and establishes the rights and obligations of data principals and data fiduciaries.
24. The Fourth Geneva Convention primarily deals with the protection of:
A. Prisoners of war only
B. Civilians during armed conflict
C. Refugees during peacetime
D. Diplomatic officials during war
Answer: B. Civilians during armed conflict
Explanation: The Fourth Geneva Convention (1949) provides legal protection to civilians in times of war and military occupation, including safeguards against violence, deportation, and collective punishment.
The four Geneva Conventions were adopted in 1949 after World War II to establish international humanitarian law protecting wounded soldiers, prisoners of war, and civilians during armed conflicts.
25. The “Hummus Trail”, recently in the news, refers to:
A. A trade corridor connecting West Asia and Europe
B. A popular backpacking route used by foreign tourists in Israel and the Palestinian territories
C. An ancient Silk Route branch
D. A UNESCO heritage walking trail in Jordan
Answer: B. A popular backpacking route used by foreign tourists in Israel and the Palestinian territories
Explanation: The Hummus Trail is an informal travel route frequented by international backpackers, particularly in Israel and the Palestinian territories. It recently came under scrutiny due to allegations involving individuals accused of war crimes.
26. Which international treaty forms the cornerstone of International Humanitarian Law governing the protection of civilians during armed conflicts?
A. Rome Statute, 1998
B. Geneva Conventions, 1949
C. Hague Convention, 1907
D. UN Charter, 1945
Answer: B. Geneva Conventions, 1949
Explanation: The Geneva Conventions of 1949 and their Additional Protocols form the foundation of International Humanitarian Law (IHL) by regulating the conduct of armed conflict and protecting victims of war.
27. According to the IGU World LNG Report, India added approximately how much LNG regasification capacity in 2025?
A. 25.5 million tonnes per annum (MTPA)
B. 35.5 million tonnes per annum (MTPA)
C. 52.5 million tonnes per annum (MTPA)
D. 75.5 million tonnes per annum (MTPA)
Answer: C. 52.5 million tonnes per annum (MTPA)
Explanation: According to the IGU World LNG Report, India added 52.5 MTPA of LNG regasification capacity in 2025, making it one of the fastest-growing LNG infrastructure markets in the world.
Liquefied Natural Gas (LNG) is natural gas cooled to about −162°C, converting it into a liquid. This reduces its volume significantly, making storage and transportation easier.
The International Gas Union (IGU) publishes the World LNG Report, which provides global data on LNG production, trade, infrastructure, and regasification capacity.
28. Regasification terminals are primarily used to:
A. Convert crude oil into petrol
B. Convert liquefied natural gas (LNG) back into gaseous form
C. Refine natural gas into LPG
D. Store crude oil underground
Answer: B. Convert liquefied natural gas (LNG) back into gaseous form
Explanation: LNG imported by ships is converted back into natural gas at regasification terminals, after which it is supplied through pipelines for industrial, commercial, and domestic use.
29. Which market regulator amended the registration fee rules for Foreign Portfolio Investors (FPIs)?
A. Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
B. Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
C. Ministry of Finance
D. Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI)
Answer: B. Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
Explanation: SEBI amended the registration fee structure for Foreign Portfolio Investors (FPIs) to simplify regulations and improve the ease of investing in Indian capital markets.
FPIs invest in financial assets such as equity shares, bonds, and mutual funds without acquiring a controlling interest in the companies, unlike Foreign Direct Investment (FDI).
30. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has consistently maintained which of the following regarding cryptocurrencies?
A. They should become legal tender.
B. They pose risks to financial stability and monetary policy.
C. They should replace bank deposits.
D. They should be issued only by private companies.
Answer: B. They pose risks to financial stability and monetary policy.
Explanation: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has repeatedly expressed concerns that private cryptocurrencies could threaten financial stability, monetary policy transmission, and consumer protection, while supporting innovation through regulated digital payment systems.
31. According to the World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO), the global Artificial Intelligence (AI) boom has driven investment in which type of assets to a record level?
A. Fixed assets
B. Tangible assets
C. Intangible assets
D. Precious metals
Answer: C. Intangible assets
Explanation: According to a WIPO report, the rapid growth of AI has significantly increased investment in intangible assets such as software, data, research & development (R&D), patents, designs, brands, and organizational know-how.
The World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO) is headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland and is responsible for promoting the protection of intellectual property worldwide.
32. Which of the following is NOT considered an intangible asset?
A. Patent
B. Trademark
C. Software
D. Factory building
Answer: D. Factory building
Explanation: Intangible assets include patents, trademarks, software, copyrights, databases, brands, and intellectual property. A factory building is a tangible (physical) asset.
33. Which country announced that it would allow Ukraine to produce Patriot air defence systems under licence?
A. Germany
B. France
C. United States
D. United Kingdom
Answer: C. United States
Explanation: The United States announced that it would permit Ukraine to produce Patriot air defence systems under licence, strengthening Ukraine’s air defence capabilities against missile attacks.
The Patriot (Phased Array Tracking Radar to Intercept on Target) is a surface-to-air missile system developed by the United States for aircraft, cruise missile, and ballistic missile defence.
34. Which island, frequently mentioned in international news due to U.S. interest, is an autonomous territory within the Kingdom of Denmark?
A. Iceland
B. Greenland
C. Faroe Islands
D. Svalbard
Answer: B. Greenland
Explanation: Greenland is an autonomous territory of the Kingdom of Denmark. It is strategically important due to its Arctic location, mineral resources, and emerging shipping routes.
35. Najaf, recently in the news for funeral processions, is a holy city located in:
A. Iran
B. Iraq
C. Syria
D. Saudi Arabia
Answer: B. Iraq
Explanation: Najaf is one of the holiest cities in Iraq for Shia Muslims. It houses the Imam Ali Shrine, one of the most important pilgrimage sites in Shia Islam.
36. The article on drone warfare highlighted concerns over abandoned fibre-optic cables used by FPV drones. What does FPV stand for?
A. First Person View
B. Fast Precision Vehicle
C. Forward Position Vision
D. Fibre Powered Vehicle
Answer: A. First Person View
Explanation: FPV (First Person View) drones transmit live video from an onboard camera to the operator, enabling highly precise remote navigation. They are increasingly used in modern military operations.
37. Which ongoing conflict has seen the widespread use of fibre-optic FPV drones, recently highlighted for their environmental impact?
A. Israel–Hamas conflict
B. Russia–Ukraine conflict
C. Armenia–Azerbaijan conflict
D. Sudan civil war
Answer: B. Russia–Ukraine conflict
Explanation: The Russia–Ukraine conflict has witnessed extensive use of fibre-optic FPV drones, which are resistant to electronic jamming. The abandoned cables have raised concerns about long-term environmental pollution.
38. The Rafah Crossing, frequently in the news during the Gaza conflict, connects the Gaza Strip with:
A. Jordan
B. Egypt
C. Lebanon
D. Syria
Answer: B. Egypt
Explanation: The Rafah Crossing is the only border crossing between Gaza and Egypt not directly controlled by Israel. It serves as a vital route for humanitarian aid and civilian movement.
The Gaza Strip has a coastline along the Mediterranean Sea, making it strategically important for trade, fishing, and regional security.
39. Aswath became India’s ______ Grandmaster after winning the final GM norm.
A. 95th
B. 96th
C. 97th
D. 98th
Answer: D. 98th
Explanation: Indian chess player Aswath became India’s 98th Grandmaster (GM) after securing his third and final GM norm. India has witnessed remarkable growth in chess, producing a large number of Grandmasters in recent years.
To become a Grandmaster, a player must achieve three GM norms in FIDE-approved tournaments and attain a live FIDE rating of at least 2500 at any point in their career.
40. Which country won the ICC Women’s T20 World Cup 2026?
A. India
B. England
C. Australia
D. South Africa
Answer: C. Australia
Explanation: Australia won the ICC Women’s T20 World Cup 2026, defeating England in the final. The victory reaffirmed Australia’s dominance in women’s cricket despite being in a transition phase.
Australia defeated England in the final to lift the ICC Women’s T20 World Cup title after a commanding performance throughout the tournament.
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