1. Which Indian badminton player ended a 19-month title drought by winning a tournament in July 2026?

A. P. V. Sindhu
B. Saina Nehwal
C. Lakshya Sen
D. H. S. Prannoy

Answer: A. P. V. Sindhu

Explanation: P. V. Sindhu ended her 19-month title drought with a tournament victory, marking an important comeback after a prolonged period without an international title.

2. The Union Home Minister laid the foundation stone of a ₹700-crore dairy project of which cooperative in West Bengal?

A. Mother Dairy
B. Nandini
C. Verka
D. Amul

Answer: D. Amul

Explanation: The ₹700-crore Amul dairy project is being established in Howrah, West Bengal. The project aims to strengthen the dairy sector by increasing milk procurement, processing, and employment opportunities.

3. The ₹700-crore dairy project inaugurated in West Bengal is expected to process approximately how much milk per day?

A. 5 lakh litres/day
B. 10 lakh litres/day
C. 15 lakh litres/day
D. 25 lakh litres/day

Answer: C. 15 lakh litres/day

Explanation: The Amul dairy plant will initially process 15 lakh litres of milk per day, with plans to expand capacity to 25 lakh litres in the future.

4. Maharashtra has constituted a committee to study benefits for Scheduled Tribes after conversion. The committee will be headed by whom?

A. Justice D.Y. Chandrachud
B. Justice U.U. Lalit
C. Former Chief Justice Dilip Bhosale
D. Justice B.R. Gavai

Answer: C. Former Chief Justice Dilip Bhosale

Explanation: The Maharashtra government constituted a committee under former Chief Justice Dilip Bhosale to examine whether Scheduled Tribe (ST) members should continue receiving reservation benefits after religious conversion.

5. The ongoing nationwide transition in fuel quality discussed in the report relates to the introduction of which blended petrol?

A. E10 (10% Ethanol)
B. E15 (15% Ethanol)
C. E20 (20% Ethanol)
D. E85 (85% Ethanol)

Answer: C. E20 (20% Ethanol)

Explanation: E20 fuel contains 20% ethanol blended with 80% petrol. The initiative is part of India’s strategy to reduce crude oil imports, lower carbon emissions, and promote biofuels.

The E20 programme aims to decrease dependence on imported crude oil, reduce vehicular emissions, support domestic ethanol production, and improve energy security.

6. The Union Government announced a special audit of which Centrally Sponsored Scheme in Telangana over alleged diversion of funds?

A. PM Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY)
B. Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS)
C. Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS)
D. Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (PMAY)

Answer: C. Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS)

Explanation: The Union Minister alleged that funds released under MGNREGS in Telangana were diverted for purposes such as salaries, electricity bills, and administrative expenses instead of developmental works. The Centre has sought stricter monitoring and a special audit.

7. The Tamil Nadu government has proposed reducing the Value Added Tax (VAT) on which fuel?

A. Diesel
B. Petrol
C. Aviation Turbine Fuel (ATF)
D. Compressed Natural Gas (CNG)

Answer: C. Aviation Turbine Fuel (ATF)

Explanation: Tamil Nadu proposed reducing VAT on Aviation Turbine Fuel (ATF) from 29% to 25% to improve the competitiveness of its airports and encourage airlines to increase operations.

Aviation Turbine Fuel (ATF) is a specialized fuel used in turbine-engine aircraft. It constitutes a major operating expense for airlines, making tax reductions significant for the aviation sector.

8. Which festival is popularly celebrated in Telangana and was featured in the news?

A. Bathukamma
B. Sammakka Saralamma Jatara
C. Bonalu
D. Medaram Festival

Answer: C. Bonalu

Explanation: Bonalu is a traditional Hindu festival celebrated mainly in Telangana in honour of Goddess Mahakali. Devotees offer food (Bonam) and participate in colorful processions and folk performances such as Pothuraju.

9. Which Omicron sub-lineage was detected in Andhra Pradesh and reported as a COVID-19 Variant Under Monitoring (VUM)?

A. XBB.1.5
B. BA.2.86
C. JN.1
D. RF.5

Answer: D. RF.5

Explanation: Andhra Pradesh reported India’s first case of the Omicron RF.5 sub-lineage. According to health authorities, it is currently classified as a Variant Under Monitoring (VUM) and there is no evidence that it causes more severe disease than other Omicron variants.

10. Which State now has the highest number of medical seats in India, according to the National Medical Commission (NMC)?

A. Maharashtra
B. Tamil Nadu
C. Uttar Pradesh
D. Karnataka

Answer: D. Karnataka

Explanation: The National Medical Commission (NMC) approved additional medical seats, making Karnataka the State with the highest number of medical seats in the country.

11. Climate activist Sonam Wangchuk announced that he would end his indefinite fast if Parliament focuses on which issue during the Monsoon Session?

A. Electoral reforms
B. Judicial reforms
C. Education accountability
D. Climate finance

Answer: C. Education accountability

Explanation: Sonam Wangchuk stated that he would end his hunger strike if political leaders assured that education accountability would be taken up as a priority during the Monsoon Session of Parliament.

12. The police protest in Madhya Pradesh was primarily against the construction of which river-linking project?

A. Par-Tapi-Narmada Link Project
B. Damanganga-Pinjal Link Project
C. Godavari-Krishna Link Project
D. Ken–Betwa River Linking Project

Answer: D. Ken–Betwa River Linking Project

Explanation: Protesters opposed the Ken–Betwa River Linking Project and other irrigation projects, alleging displacement and environmental concerns. The Ken–Betwa project is India’s first river interlinking project under the National Perspective Plan.

13. The Ken–Betwa River Linking Project primarily links rivers flowing through which two States?

A. Maharashtra and Gujarat
B. Odisha and Chhattisgarh
C. Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh
D. Rajasthan and Haryana

Answer: C. Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh

Explanation: The Ken–Betwa River Linking Project aims to transfer surplus water from the Ken River (Madhya Pradesh) to the Betwa River, benefiting both Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh for irrigation and drinking water.

14. Bihar Chief Minister Nitish Kumar inaugurated the ₹130.88-crore Vira–Manpur Link Channel under which river-linking project?

A. Ken–Betwa Link Project
B. Parbati–Kalisindh–Chambal Project
C. Kosi–Mechi River Linking Project
D. Damanganga–Pinjal Project

Answer: C. Kosi–Mechi River Linking Project

Explanation: The Vira–Manpur Link Channel is part of the Kosi–Mechi River Linking Project in Bihar. It aims to divert floodwaters, improve irrigation, reduce flood damage, and enhance agricultural productivity.

15. The Kosi–Mechi River Linking Project is primarily intended to achieve which objective?

A. Hydropower generation only
B. Inland water transport development
C. Coastal erosion control
D. Flood management and irrigation enhancement

Answer: D. Flood management and irrigation enhancement

Explanation: The project is designed to divert excess floodwater from the Kosi basin, reduce recurring floods in north Bihar, and provide irrigation facilities to improve agricultural productivity.

16. The Constitution (Amendment) Bill on delimitation seeks to increase the strength of the Lok Sabha to approximately how many seats?

A. 545
B. 650
C. 750
D. 850

Answer: D. 850

Explanation: The proposed Constitution (Amendment) Bill seeks to increase the strength of the Lok Sabha from 545 to 850 seats in view of population growth and future delimitation.

17. Under Article 82 of the Constitution, delimitation of parliamentary constituencies is carried out after which exercise?

A. National Sample Survey
B. Socio-Economic Caste Census
C. National Population Register
D. Decennial Census

Answer: D. Decennial Census

Explanation: Article 82 provides that Parliament shall enact a Delimitation Act after every decennial Census to readjust the allocation of Lok Sabha seats and redraw constituency boundaries.

18. Delimitation of Assembly constituencies in States is provided under which Article of the Constitution?

A. Article 81
B. Article 82
C. Article 170
D. Article 324

Answer: C. Article 170

Explanation: Article 170 deals with the composition of State Legislative Assemblies and provides for the readjustment of Assembly constituencies after each Census.

19. The Centre proposed amending the Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act, 1971, to provide statutory protection to which of the following?

A. National Flag only
B. State Emblem only
C. Constitution of India
D. National Song ‘Vande Mataram’

Answer: D. National Song ‘Vande Mataram’

Explanation: The proposed amendment seeks to extend statutory protection to ‘Vande Mataram’, making intentional insults to the National Song a punishable offence under the Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act, 1971.

20. The Constitution (Forty-second Amendment) Act, 1976, froze the allocation of Lok Sabha seats among States based on which Census?

A. 1961 Census
B. 1971 Census
C. 1981 Census
D. 1991 Census

Answer: B. 1971 Census

Explanation: The 42nd Constitutional Amendment (1976) froze the allocation of Lok Sabha seats among States based on the 1971 Census to encourage population control without affecting political representation.

21. The Constitution (Eighty-fourth Amendment) Act, 2001, extended the freeze on the allocation of Lok Sabha seats until which Census?

A. 2011 Census
B. 2021 Census
C. 2026 (first Census after 2026)
D. 2031 Census

Answer: C. 2026 (first Census after 2026)

Explanation: The 84th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2001 extended the freeze on the readjustment of Lok Sabha seats until the first Census conducted after 2026, while allowing limited readjustment of constituency boundaries based on population changes.

22. Which State Cabinet approved a draft Uniform Civil Code (UCC) Bill while exempting Scheduled Tribes from its provisions?

A. Gujarat
B. Uttarakhand
C. Madhya Pradesh
D. Rajasthan

Answer: C. Madhya Pradesh

Explanation: The Madhya Pradesh Cabinet approved the draft Uniform Civil Code (UCC) Bill, proposing a ban on practices such as polygamy and nikah halala, while exempting Scheduled Tribes from its provisions under Article 342 of the Constitution.

23. Which of the following practices is proposed to be banned under the draft Uniform Civil Code (UCC) Bill of Madhya Pradesh?

A. Child adoption
B. Inter-caste marriage
C. Polygamy and Nikah Halala
D. Judicial separation

Answer: C. Polygamy and Nikah Halala

Explanation: The draft UCC Bill proposes banning polygamy and nikah halala, while making registration of marriages and live-in relationships mandatory.

24. Under which Article of the Constitution are Scheduled Tribes notified, allowing their exemption from the proposed Madhya Pradesh UCC?

A. Article 340
B. Article 341
C. Article 342
D. Article 343

Answer: C. Article 342

Explanation: Article 342 empowers the President to specify Scheduled Tribes for each State and Union Territory. The Madhya Pradesh draft UCC exempts communities notified under this Article.

25. Union Home Minister Amit Shah inaugurated India’s first immersive language museum in which city?

A. New Delhi
B. Hyderabad
C. Bengaluru
D. Kolkata

Answer: D. Kolkata

Explanation: Amit Shah inaugurated Bharat Bhasha Museum, India’s first immersive language museum, in Kolkata. The museum showcases India’s linguistic diversity through manuscripts, digital exhibits, and interactive displays.

26. India’s first immersive language museum has been developed under the aegis of which institution?

A. Sahitya Akademi
B. Indira Gandhi National Centre for the Arts (IGNCA)
C. National Archives of India
D. National Library

Answer: D. National Library

Explanation: The Bharat Bhasha Museum has been established under the National Library in Kolkata to preserve and promote India’s rich linguistic and literary heritage.

27. The Supreme Court observed that swear words are uncivil but do not necessarily amount to an offence under which provision of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023?

A. Section 296
B. Section 294
C. Section 304
D. Section 326

Answer: B. Section 294

Explanation: The Supreme Court held that the mere use of swear words, though uncivil or abusive, does not automatically constitute obscenity punishable under Section 294 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023, unless it satisfies the legal test of obscenity.

28. President Droupadi Murmu embarked on a three-nation Europe tour covering which countries?

A. France, Germany and Italy
B. Poland, Hungary and Czech Republic
C. Portugal, Slovakia and Romania
D. Austria, Switzerland and Belgium

Answer: C. Portugal, Slovakia and Romania

Explanation: President Droupadi Murmu began a three-nation visit to Portugal, Slovakia, and Romania to strengthen India’s diplomatic, economic, and cultural relations with these European countries.

29. Vikram-1, India’s first privately developed orbital rocket, has been developed by which company?

A. Agnikul Cosmos
B. Bellatrix Aerospace
C. Pixxel
D. Skyroot Aerospace

Answer: D. Skyroot Aerospace

Explanation: Vikram-1 is India’s first privately developed orbital launch vehicle, built by Skyroot Aerospace. It successfully placed the ‘Aagaman’ mission into orbit, marking a major milestone in India’s private space sector.

30. Vikram-1 was launched from which ISRO launch facility?

A. Satish Dhawan Space Centre, Second Launch Pad (SLP)
B. Satish Dhawan Space Centre, First Launch Pad (FLP) at Sriharikota
C. Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre (VSSC), Thiruvananthapuram
D. ISRO Propulsion Complex (IPRC), Mahendragiri

Answer: B. Satish Dhawan Space Centre, First Launch Pad (FLP) at Sriharikota

Explanation: Vikram-1 lifted off from ISRO’s First Launch Pad (FLP) at Sriharikota, becoming the first privately built Indian rocket to reach orbit from an Indian launch site.

31. What is the name of the first mission launched by Vikram-1?

A. Prarambh
B. Gaganyaan-1
C. Aagaman
D. Vyom

Answer: C. Aagaman

Explanation: The inaugural mission of Vikram-1 was named ‘Aagaman’, meaning “arrival” in Sanskrit, symbolizing the arrival of India’s private space industry into orbital launches.

32. Which advanced material is primarily used in the airframe of Vikram-1 to reduce weight and increase strength?

A. Aluminium alloy
B. Titanium alloy
C. Stainless steel
D. Carbon-fibre composite

Answer: D. Carbon-fibre composite

Explanation: Vikram-1 uses carbon-fibre composite airframes, providing very high strength-to-weight ratio. This reduces rocket weight and improves payload capacity.

33. Which technology allows several components of Vikram-1’s rocket engine to be manufactured as a single integrated part?

A. Cryogenic casting
B. Powder metallurgy
C. CNC machining
D. 3D printing (Additive Manufacturing)

Answer: D. 3D printing (Additive Manufacturing)

Explanation: Skyroot Aerospace extensively uses 3D printing to manufacture rocket engine components, reducing production time, cost, and the number of assembled parts.

34. Which private Indian space company successfully flew India’s first semi-cryogenic engine-powered rocket, Agnibaan, in 2024?

A. Skyroot Aerospace
B. Bellatrix Aerospace
C. Dhruva Space
D. Agnikul Cosmos

Answer: D. Agnikul Cosmos

Explanation: Agnikul Cosmos launched Agnibaan SOrTeD, India’s first privately developed rocket powered by a semi-cryogenic engine, marking another major achievement in the Indian private space ecosystem.

35. Which ISRO launch vehicle served as the inspiration for Vikram-1’s modular design?

A. GSLV Mk III (LVM3)
B. GSLV Mk II
C. SSLV
D. PSLV

Answer: D. PSLV

Explanation: Vikram-1 adopts a modular architecture inspired by the PSLV, enabling flexibility in payload configurations and simplifying manufacturing and mission planning.

36. In the context of marine conservation, what is “finning”?

A. Artificial breeding of sharks in captivity
B. Tagging sharks for scientific research
C. Removing a shark’s fins and discarding the body at sea
D. Harvesting only naturally shed shark fins

Answer: C. Removing a shark’s fins and discarding the body at sea

Explanation: Shark finning is the practice of cutting off a shark’s fins and throwing the rest of the body back into the sea, often while the shark is still alive. The practice is widely condemned because it is cruel, wasteful, and contributes to the decline of shark populations worldwide.

37. Embodied AI primarily refers to artificial intelligence that is:

A. Limited to text and image processing
B. Operated only through cloud computing
C. Integrated with a physical body (robot) that interacts with the real world
D. Designed only for autonomous vehicles

Answer: C. Integrated with a physical body (robot) that interacts with the real world

Explanation: Embodied AI combines intelligence with a physical body, enabling robots to perceive, move, manipulate objects, and interact with real-world environments instead of operating only in virtual or software-based settings.

38. Which company developed the humanoid robot Atlas, featured in the article on embodied AI?

A. Tesla
B. Figure AI
C. Agility Robotics
D. Boston Dynamics

Answer: D. Boston Dynamics

Explanation: Atlas, developed by Boston Dynamics, is one of the world’s most advanced humanoid robots, capable of dynamic movements such as running, jumping, and performing complex physical tasks.

39. According to the article, one of the biggest challenges for embodied AI is overcoming the:

A. Digital divide
B. Quantum computing barrier
C. Simulation-to-real (Sim-to-Real) gap
D. Language translation problem

Answer: C. Simulation-to-real (Sim-to-Real) gap

Explanation: The simulation-to-real gap refers to the difficulty of transferring skills learned in computer simulations to unpredictable real-world environments, where robots must deal with gravity, friction, and unexpected obstacles.

40. Which branch of AI seeks to mimic the structure and functioning of the human brain using artificial neurons?

A. Generative AI
B. Reinforcement Learning
C. Symbolic AI
D. Neuromorphic AI

Answer: D. Neuromorphic AI

Explanation: Neuromorphic AI is inspired by the human brain and uses artificial neurons and synapses to process information efficiently, especially for low-power and real-time applications.

41. Which recent AI model developed by OpenAI was mentioned as enabling robots to understand and follow natural language instructions?

A. GPT-3.5
B. DALL·E 3
C. Whisper
D. GPT-4o

Answer: D. GPT-4o

Explanation: The article notes that GPT-4o enables robots to better understand spoken instructions and interact more naturally with humans, supporting advances in embodied AI and robotics.

42. L&T Vyoma’s “Artificial Intelligence Factory” has been established in which city?

A. Bengaluru
B. Hyderabad
C. Pune
D. Chennai

Answer: D. Chennai

Explanation: L&T Vyoma has established its AI Factory in Chennai to provide high-performance computing (HPC), GPU infrastructure, and AI cloud services for enterprises and research institutions.

L&T Vyoma’s AI Factory is powered by NVIDIA GPU clusters, enabling large-scale AI model training, inference, and high-performance computing applications.

L&T Vyoma plans to invest around ₹9,000 crore across its AI campuses to strengthen India’s digital infrastructure and AI computing ecosystem.

43. Which company was featured for building an integrated clean-energy platform through acquisitions in the renewable energy sector?

A. Adani Green Energy
B. Tata Power Renewable Energy
C. ReNew Power
D. Inox Clean Energy

Answer: D. Inox Clean Energy

Explanation: Inox Clean Energy has built an integrated clean-energy platform by expanding across renewable energy manufacturing, project development, and related businesses through strategic acquisitions.

44. Andy Burnham became the Prime Minister of which country?

A. Canada
B. Australia
C. Ireland
D. United Kingdom

Answer: D. United Kingdom

Explanation: Andy Burnham assumed office as the Prime Minister of the United Kingdom, with major challenges including the cost-of-living crisis, economic recovery, public services, immigration, and foreign policy.

45. Which traditional Japanese festival, celebrated in Kyoto, was featured in the news?

A. Nebuta Matsuri
B. Tanabata
C. Awa Odori
D. Gion Matsuri

Answer: D. Gion Matsuri

Explanation: Gion Matsuri is one of Japan’s oldest and most famous festivals, celebrated every July in Kyoto. It originated in the 9th century and is renowned for its elaborate floats (Yamaboko Junko) and traditional processions.

46. Which England player became the country’s all-time leading goal scorer in FIFA World Cup history?

A. Harry Kane
B. Wayne Rooney
C. Gary Lineker
D. Jude Bellingham

Answer: D. Jude Bellingham

Explanation: Jude Bellingham became England’s highest goal scorer in FIFA World Cup history, surpassing previous records with his strike against France.

47. Which footballer became the all-time highest goal scorer in FIFA World Cup history with 22 goals?

A. Lionel Messi
B. Cristiano Ronaldo
C. Harry Kane
D. Kylian Mbappé

Answer: D. Kylian Mbappé

Explanation: Kylian Mbappé became the all-time leading scorer in FIFA World Cup history with 22 goals, surpassing Lionel Messi’s previous tally.

48. Which New Zealand golfer won his maiden major title by clinching the British Open?

A. Lydia Ko
B. Danny Lee
C. Michael Campbell
D. Ryan Fox

Answer: D. Ryan Fox

Explanation: Ryan Fox of New Zealand won his first major championship by securing victory at the British Open, marking the biggest achievement of his golfing career.

49. P. V. Sindhu won her maiden Japan Open title by defeating which Japanese shuttler in the women’s singles final?

A. Nozomi Okuhara
B. Akane Yamaguchi
C. Aya Ohori
D. Tomoka Miyazaki

Answer: B. Akane Yamaguchi

Explanation: P. V. Sindhu defeated Akane Yamaguchi to win her maiden Japan Open title. The victory ended her 20-month title drought and marked her first BWF World Tour title since the 2022 Singapore Open.

50. British athlete Josh Kerr broke the world mile record at which event?

A. Diamond League Paris
B. World Athletics Championships
C. London Marathon
D. London Diamond League

Answer: D. London Diamond League

Explanation: Josh Kerr set a new world mile record at the London Diamond League, surpassing the previous mark in one of athletics’ most prestigious one-mile events.

51. Which Formula One driver won the Belgian Grand Prix?

A. Max Verstappen
B. Charles Leclerc
C. Lando Norris
D. Kimi Antonelli

Answer: D. Kimi Antonelli

Explanation: Kimi Antonelli won the Belgian Grand Prix, strengthening his position at the top of the Formula One World Drivers’ Championship standings.

52. The article “Quicksand in the marshland” focuses on the conservation of which ecologically important wetland in Chennai?

A. Vedanthangal Bird Sanctuary
B. Pulicat Lake
C. Pallikaranai Marsh
D. Muttukadu Backwaters

Answer: C. Pallikaranai Marsh

Explanation: Pallikaranai Marsh is one of the last remaining natural wetlands in Chennai. It acts as a flood buffer, recharges groundwater, filters pollutants, and supports rich biodiversity, making its conservation crucial.

53. Pallikaranai Marsh has been designated as a Ramsar Site under which international convention?

A. Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD)
B. Bonn Convention
C. CITES
D. Ramsar Convention on Wetlands

Answer: D. Ramsar Convention on Wetlands

Explanation: Pallikaranai Marsh is a Ramsar Site, recognized under the Ramsar Convention on Wetlands (1971) for its international ecological importance and the need for its wise use and conservation.

54. Pallikaranai Marsh ultimately drains into which water body?

A. Arabian Sea
B. Palk Bay
C. Gulf of Mannar
D. Bay of Bengal

Answer: D. Bay of Bengal

Explanation: The marsh receives water from numerous wetlands across Chennai and eventually drains into the Bay of Bengal. It plays a key role in flood moderation during heavy rainfall.

55. According to the report, approximately how many wetlands feed water into the Pallikaranai Marsh?

A. 25
B. 40
C. 65
D. 120

Answer: C. 65

Explanation: The article notes that around 65 wetlands naturally drain into the Pallikaranai Marsh, highlighting its role as a major hydrological sink in the Chennai region.

56. Why is the Pallikaranai Marsh considered ecologically significant?

A. It is India’s largest mangrove forest.
B. It is the source of the Cauvery River.
C. It contains the world’s largest coral reef.
D. It stores floodwater, recharges groundwater, filters pollutants, and supports biodiversity.

Answer: D. It stores floodwater, recharges groundwater, filters pollutants, and supports biodiversity.

Explanation: Pallikaranai Marsh serves as a natural sponge by storing monsoon floodwaters, recharging groundwater, filtering pollutants, and providing habitat to numerous species of birds, reptiles, amphibians, mammals, and aquatic life.

57. Which report was cited in the editorial to highlight employment challenges faced by India’s youth?

A. Human Development Report (UNDP)
B. World Employment and Social Outlook (ILO)
C. India Employment Report 2024 (NITI Aayog)
D. India Employment Report 2024 (ILO and Institute for Human Development)

Answer: D. India Employment Report 2024 (ILO and Institute for Human Development)

Explanation: The editorial refers to the India Employment Report 2024, jointly prepared by the International Labour Organization (ILO) and the Institute for Human Development (IHD), which highlights rising youth unemployment and labour market challenges.

58. Which country has significantly reduced the number of study permits issued to international students, leading to a sharp decline in Indian student admissions?

A. Australia
B. United Kingdom
C. United States
D. Canada

Answer: D. Canada

Explanation: Canada has reduced international student permits as part of its immigration policy changes. Since Indians constitute the largest share of international students in Canada, the move is expected to significantly impact Indian students seeking higher education there.