1. India’s first dengue vaccine approved for which age group?

A. 1–12 years
B. 2–18 years
C. 4–60 years
D. Above 18 years

Answer: C. 4–60 years

Explanation: India’s drug regulator has granted approval to Takeda Biopharmaceuticals’ QDENGA (TAK-003), making it the country’s first approved dengue vaccine. It is indicated for the prevention of dengue in individuals aged 4 to 60 years.

2. QDENGA (TAK-003), recently approved in India, is a vaccine for which disease?

A. Malaria
B. Chikungunya
C. Dengue
D. Japanese Encephalitis

Answer: C. Dengue

Explanation: QDENGA (TAK-003), developed by Takeda Biopharmaceuticals, is India’s first approved vaccine for dengue and is designed to protect against the disease caused by the dengue virus.

3. QDENGA (TAK-003) provides protection against how many dengue virus serotypes?

A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four

Answer: D. Four

Explanation: QDENGA is a tetravalent live-attenuated vaccine, designed to protect against all four serotypes (DENV-1, DENV-2, DENV-3 and DENV-4) of the dengue virus.

4. The Ukrainian port of Odesa, recently in the news, is located on which sea?

A. Baltic Sea
B. Mediterranean Sea
C. Black Sea
D. Caspian Sea

Answer: C. Black Sea

Explanation: Odesa is Ukraine’s principal seaport on the Black Sea and has been a strategically important location during the Russia–Ukraine conflict.

5. Which country recently got Andrew Burnham as its Prime Minister?

A. Canada
B. Australia
C. United Kingdom
D. New Zealand

Answer: C. United Kingdom

Explanation: Andrew Burnham assumed office as the new Prime Minister of the United Kingdom after the Labour Party’s electoral victory and announced a focus on social reforms.

6. India’s core industries grew by what percentage in June 2026, reaching a five-month high?

A. 3%
B. 4%
C. 5%
D. 7%

Answer: C. 5%

Explanation: India’s Index of Eight Core Industries recorded 5% growth in June 2026, the highest in five months, driven mainly by steel, cement, electricity and refinery products.

7. The Government of India has currently decided not to increase the ethanol blending target beyond which percentage?

A. 15%
B. 20%
C. 25%
D. 30%

Answer: B. 20%

Explanation: The government has decided not to pursue higher ethanol blending targets for now and will continue with the existing 20% ethanol blending goal.

8. The Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act (FCRA), recently in the news, primarily regulates:

A. Foreign trade agreements
B. Foreign investment in companies
C. Acceptance and utilisation of foreign contributions by individuals and organisations
D. Foreign exchange reserves of India

Answer: C. Acceptance and utilisation of foreign contributions by individuals and organisations

Explanation: The Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act (FCRA) regulates the acceptance and use of foreign donations by individuals, associations and NGOs to ensure that such funds do not adversely affect national interest.

The Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) administers the FCRA, including registration, renewal, monitoring and regulation of organisations receiving foreign contributions.

The FCRA was first enacted in 1976 during the Emergency period. It was later replaced by the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, 2010, which is currently in force with subsequent amendments.

9. The Bombay High Court recently ordered a CID probe into a sexual assault case involving an ashram school. Which Article of the Constitution empowers High Courts to issue writs?

A. Article 32
B. Article 131
C. Article 226
D. Article 136

Answer: C. Article 226

Explanation: Article 226 empowers High Courts to issue writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights and for any other legal purpose. High Courts often exercise this power while directing investigations or granting relief.

10. The Cauvery Water Regulation Committee (CWRC), recently in the news, functions under which authority?

A. Central Water Commission
B. Cauvery Water Management Authority (CWMA)
C. National Water Development Agency
D. Ministry of Jal Shakti

Answer: B. Cauvery Water Management Authority (CWMA)

Explanation: The Cauvery Water Regulation Committee (CWRC) functions under the Cauvery Water Management Authority (CWMA). It monitors reservoir levels, assesses water availability and oversees the implementation of the Cauvery water-sharing arrangements.

11. The Cauvery Water Dispute primarily involves which of the following States?

A. Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Kerala and Puducherry
B. Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh and Telangana
C. Tamil Nadu, Odisha and Andhra Pradesh
D. Kerala, Goa and Karnataka

Answer: A. Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Kerala and Puducherry

Explanation: The Cauvery River water dispute involves Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Kerala and the Union Territory of Puducherry over the sharing of Cauvery river waters.

12. Bengaluru will host the next meeting of the India–U.S. Civil Space Joint Working Group (CSJWG). Which organisation represents India in this dialogue?

A. DRDO
B. ISRO
C. IN-SPACe
D. Antrix Corporation

Answer: B. ISRO

Explanation: The India–U.S. Civil Space Joint Working Group (CSJWG) is a bilateral mechanism involving ISRO and U.S. counterparts to strengthen cooperation in civil space activities.

13. The NASA–ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar (NISAR) mission is a joint mission of ISRO and which U.S. agency?

A. NOAA
B. NASA
C. USGS
D. DARPA

Answer: B. NASA

Explanation: NISAR (NASA–ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar) is a joint Earth observation satellite mission developed by NASA and ISRO to study changes in Earth’s land, ice and ecosystems using advanced radar technology.

14. NISAR primarily uses which type of remote sensing technology?

A. Optical imaging
B. Infrared imaging
C. Synthetic Aperture Radar (SAR)
D. LiDAR

Answer: C. Synthetic Aperture Radar (SAR)

Explanation: NISAR employs Synthetic Aperture Radar (SAR), enabling it to collect high-resolution images of Earth’s surface during both day and night and even through cloud cover.

15. Which High Court recently ruled that an adult unmarried daughter can seek financial support from her father for education?

A. Madras High Court
B. Delhi High Court
C. Karnataka High Court
D. Bombay High Court

Answer: C. Karnataka High Court

Explanation: The Karnataka High Court held that an adult unmarried daughter may claim financial support from her father for higher education under appropriate legal provisions, considering education an essential need.

16. The Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005 was enacted to protect women from:

A. Workplace harassment only
B. Domestic violence within a domestic relationship
C. Human trafficking
D. Dowry deaths only

Answer: B. Domestic violence within a domestic relationship

Explanation: The Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005 provides civil remedies and protection to women facing physical, emotional, verbal, sexual or economic abuse in a domestic relationship.

17. Internet services were temporarily suspended in parts of Central Delhi during the CJP protest. Under the Temporary Suspension of Telecom Services Rules, 2017, internet suspension orders are issued under which Act?

A. Information Technology Act, 2000
B. Indian Telegraph Act, 1885
C. Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023
D. Disaster Management Act, 2005

Answer: B. Indian Telegraph Act, 1885

Explanation: Internet shutdowns in India are generally ordered under the Temporary Suspension of Telecom Services (Public Emergency or Public Safety) Rules, 2017, framed under the Indian Telegraph Act, 1885.

18. The Temporary Suspension of Telecom Services (Public Emergency or Public Safety) Rules were notified in which year?

A. 2015
B. 2016
C. 2017
D. 2020

Answer: C. 2017

Explanation: The Temporary Suspension of Telecom Services Rules, 2017 provide the legal framework for suspending telecom and internet services in situations involving public emergency or public safety.

19. The right to peaceful protest in India is primarily derived from which Fundamental Right?

A. Article 19(1)(a) only
B. Article 19(1)(b) only
C. Articles 19(1)(a), 19(1)(b) and 19(1)(c), subject to reasonable restrictions
D. Article 21 only

Answer: C. Articles 19(1)(a), 19(1)(b) and 19(1)(c), subject to reasonable restrictions

Explanation: The Constitution guarantees the freedom of speech and expression, peaceful assembly and association under Article 19, but these rights are subject to reasonable restrictions in the interests of public order, sovereignty and other constitutional grounds.

20. The Union Government has introduced a Bill to increase the sanctioned strength of judges in the Supreme Court to:

A. 34
B. 36
C. 38
D. 42

Answer: C. 38

Explanation: The Union Government introduced the Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Amendment Bill, 2026 to increase the sanctioned strength of Supreme Court judges from 34 to 38 (excluding the Chief Justice of India) to reduce the growing pendency of cases.

21. The Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Amendment Bill, 2026 seeks to amend which Act?

A. Supreme Court Judges (Salaries and Conditions of Service) Act, 1958
B. Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Act, 1956
C. High Courts Act, 1961
D. Advocates Act, 1961

Answer: B. Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Act, 1956

Explanation: The Bill proposes to amend the Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Act, 1956, which prescribes the sanctioned strength of judges in the Supreme Court.

22. Forty-four Somali nationals were recently sentenced to life imprisonment in India for piracy. Piracy on the high seas is primarily governed under which international convention?

A. MARPOL Convention
B. United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS), 1982
C. SOLAS Convention
D. Antarctic Treaty

Answer: B. United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS), 1982

Explanation: UNCLOS, 1982 defines piracy and provides the legal framework for combating piracy on the high seas. It allows all States to seize pirate ships and prosecute offenders under the principle of universal jurisdiction.

23. Under UNCLOS, piracy is considered a crime subject to:

A. Territorial jurisdiction only
B. Universal jurisdiction
C. Diplomatic immunity
D. Exclusive jurisdiction of the flag State

Answer: B. Universal jurisdiction

Explanation: Piracy is one of the few offences under international law that is subject to universal jurisdiction, enabling any State to arrest and prosecute pirates regardless of nationality.

24. The Supreme Court recently directed that the President should decide on a mercy petition within four weeks. Which Article of the Constitution empowers the President to grant pardons?

A. Article 72
B. Article 161
C. Article 143
D. Article 356

Answer: A. Article 72

Explanation: Article 72 empowers the President of India to grant pardons, reprieves, respites, remissions or commute sentences in specified cases, including death sentences.

25. Which Article empowers the Governor of a State to grant pardons and remit sentences?

A. Article 72
B. Article 161
C. Article 163
D. Article 167

Answer: B. Article 161

Explanation: Article 161 empowers the Governor to grant pardons, reprieves, respites and remissions or suspend, remit or commute sentences for offences against laws under the executive power of the State.

26. Which region of India is most prone to landslides during the Southwest Monsoon?

A. Thar Desert
B. Indo-Gangetic Plain
C. Himalayan region and Western Ghats
D. Deccan Plateau

Answer: C. Himalayan region and Western Ghats

Explanation: The Himalayan region and the Western Ghats are India’s most landslide-prone regions due to steep slopes, fragile geology and intense monsoon rainfall.

27. Long-Duration Energy Storage (LDES) refers to energy storage systems capable of supplying electricity continuously for at least:

A. 2 hours
B. 4 hours
C. 8 hours
D. 24 hours

Answer: C. 8 hours

Explanation: Long-Duration Energy Storage (LDES) systems can discharge electricity for 8 hours or more, making them essential for balancing renewable energy sources like solar and wind during prolonged periods of low generation.

28. Which of the following is currently the most widely used Long-Duration Energy Storage (LDES) technology?

A. Lithium-ion battery storage
B. Pumped Hydroelectric Energy Storage (PHES)
C. Hydrogen fuel cells
D. Flywheel energy storage

Answer: B. Pumped Hydroelectric Energy Storage (PHES)

Explanation: Pumped Hydroelectric Energy Storage (PHES) is the most mature and widely deployed LDES technology. It stores energy by pumping water to a higher reservoir during surplus electricity generation and releases it to generate power when demand rises.

29. Pumped Hydroelectric Energy Storage (PHES) stores energy by:

A. Compressing natural gas underground
B. Converting electricity into hydrogen
C. Pumping water to an elevated reservoir and releasing it through turbines when required
D. Storing electricity in supercapacitors

Answer: C. Pumping water to an elevated reservoir and releasing it through turbines when required

Explanation: PHES stores excess electricity by pumping water uphill to an upper reservoir. During peak demand, the stored water is released through turbines to generate electricity.

30. Long-Duration Energy Storage (LDES) is particularly important for integrating which type of energy into the power grid?

A. Nuclear energy
B. Hydropower only
C. Renewable energy such as solar and wind
D. Thermal power only

Answer: C. Renewable energy such as solar and wind

Explanation: Since solar and wind power are intermittent, LDES helps maintain a stable electricity supply by storing excess energy and releasing it when renewable generation is low.

31. The Sundarbans, recently in the news over a proposed BSF fencing project, is the world’s largest:

A. Coral reef ecosystem
B. Mangrove forest
C. Freshwater wetland
D. Tropical grassland

Answer: B. Mangrove forest

Explanation: The Sundarbans is the world’s largest contiguous mangrove forest, spread across India and Bangladesh. It is a UNESCO World Heritage Site 

The Sundarbans Delta is formed by the Ganga, Brahmaputra and Meghna river systems and is one of the largest delta regions in the world.

The Royal Bengal Tiger is the flagship species of the Sundarbans Tiger Reserve, renowned for its unique adaptation to the mangrove ecosystem.

32. According to the Supreme Court of India, the right to use footpaths safely is primarily protected under which Article of the Constitution?

A. Article 14
B. Article 19(1)(d)
C. Article 21
D. Article 32

Answer: C. Article 21

Explanation: The Supreme Court has held that the Right to Life under Article 21 includes the right to safe mobility and access to public spaces, making safe and accessible footpaths an essential component of a dignified life.

33. Which of the following Fundamental Rights guarantees citizens the freedom to move freely throughout the territory of India?

A. Article 19(1)(a)
B. Article 19(1)(b)
C. Article 19(1)(d)
D. Article 21A

Answer: C. Article 19(1)(d)

Explanation: Article 19(1)(d) guarantees every citizen the right to move freely throughout the territory of India, subject to reasonable restrictions in the interest of the general public.

34. India and Canada recently discussed strengthening cooperation through the India–Canada Defence Dialogue. Defence cooperation between the two countries primarily includes:

A. Joint currency union
B. Military exchanges, defence technology and strategic cooperation
C. Nuclear weapons sharing
D. Common armed forces

Answer: B. Military exchanges, defence technology and strategic cooperation

Explanation: The India–Canada Defence Dialogue promotes cooperation in areas such as military exchanges, defence technology, maritime security, cybersecurity and strategic engagement.

35. Which Indian organisation is responsible for the development of the RADARSAT Constellation Mission-related collaboration mentioned in India–Canada space cooperation?

A. DRDO
B. ISRO
C. IN-SPACe
D. NSIL

Answer: B. ISRO

Explanation: ISRO is India’s premier space agency and collaborates internationally in Earth observation, satellite applications and space technology, including discussions with Canada on satellite and remote sensing cooperation.

36. Maglev trains operate primarily on the principle of:

A. Steam propulsion
B. Magnetic levitation and electromagnetic propulsion
C. Internal combustion engine
D. Gas turbine propulsion

Answer: B. Magnetic levitation and electromagnetic propulsion

Explanation: Maglev (Magnetic Levitation) trains use powerful magnetic fields to levitate above the track and are propelled using electromagnetic forces, eliminating wheel-track friction.

Since Maglev trains do not touch the tracks, rolling friction is eliminated, allowing higher speeds, smoother rides, lower maintenance, and reduced noise.

Modern Maglev trains can operate commercially at speeds exceeding 400 km/h, making them among the fastest land transportation systems.

China’s Shanghai Maglev, operating between Longyang Road Station and Pudong International Airport, is the world’s fastest commercial Maglev train, reaching speeds of about 431 km/h.

37. Japan’s Chuo Shinkansen, frequently in the news, uses which technology?

A. Bullet train powered by diesel engines
B. Magnetic Levitation (Maglev) technology
C. Hydrogen fuel cell technology
D. Hyperloop technology

Answer: B. Magnetic Levitation (Maglev) technology

Explanation: Japan’s Chuo Shinkansen is an advanced Superconducting Maglev (SCMAGLEV) railway project designed to operate at speeds exceeding 500 km/h.

38. Which of the following is a major limitation of Maglev technology?

A. High rolling resistance
B. Requirement of dedicated guideways and very high construction cost
C. Dependence on diesel locomotives
D. Inability to operate at high speeds

Answer: B. Requirement of dedicated guideways and very high construction cost

Explanation: Maglev trains require specialized guideways, precision engineering and sophisticated electromagnetic infrastructure, making construction and maintenance significantly more expensive than conventional rail systems.

39. The Supreme Court recently observed that insurance companies often use “ambiguous” policy language. Which principle of insurance requires policy terms to be interpreted against the party that drafted them?

A. Doctrine of Subrogation
B. Doctrine of Contra Proferentem
C. Principle of Indemnity
D. Principle of Contribution

Answer: B. Doctrine of Contra Proferentem

Explanation: The Doctrine of Contra Proferentem states that if there is ambiguity in an insurance contract, the interpretation goes against the party that drafted the contract, usually the insurer. The Supreme Court referred to this principle while criticizing vague insurance policy wording.

The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) regulates and supervises the insurance sector in India, including licensing insurers, protecting policyholders and promoting orderly growth of the industry.

IRDAI was established under the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority Act, 1999 and became the apex regulator for India’s insurance sector.

40. India has joined the WTO Agreement on Fisheries Subsidies. The agreement primarily aims to:

A. Increase fish exports from developing countries
B. Eliminate harmful fisheries subsidies contributing to overfishing and illegal fishing
C. Promote deep-sea mining
D. Create a global fish price mechanism

Answer: B. Eliminate harmful fisheries subsidies contributing to overfishing and illegal fishing

Explanation: The WTO Agreement on Fisheries Subsidies seeks to prohibit harmful subsidies that contribute to illegal, unreported and unregulated (IUU) fishing, overfishing and overcapacity, supporting sustainable use of marine resources.

41. The WTO Agreement on Fisheries Subsidies was adopted at which WTO Ministerial Conference?

A. 10th Ministerial Conference (Nairobi)
B. 11th Ministerial Conference (Buenos Aires)
C. 12th Ministerial Conference (Geneva)
D. 13th Ministerial Conference (Abu Dhabi)

Answer: C. 12th Ministerial Conference (Geneva)

Explanation: The WTO Agreement on Fisheries Subsidies was adopted at the 12th WTO Ministerial Conference (MC12) held in Geneva in June 2022. It is the first WTO agreement focused on environmental sustainability.

42. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) recently announced a foreign currency special swap. Which of the following is NOT a function of the RBI?

A. Issuing currency notes
B. Managing India’s foreign exchange reserves
C. Regulating banks and monetary policy
D. Regulating the securities market

Answer: D. Regulating the securities market

Explanation: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) manages monetary policy, regulates banks, issues currency and manages foreign exchange reserves. The securities market is regulated by SEBI.

The Reserve Bank of India was established on 1 April 1935 under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934. It was nationalised in 1949.

43. ASML, recently in the news, is headquartered in which country?

A. Germany
B. Netherlands
C. Belgium
D. Switzerland

Answer: B. Netherlands

Explanation: ASML Holding N.V. is a Dutch multinational company headquartered in Veldhoven, Netherlands. It is the world’s leading manufacturer of advanced photolithography machines used in semiconductor chip production.

ASML is the world’s leading producer of photolithography systems, especially Extreme Ultraviolet (EUV) lithography machines, which are essential for manufacturing advanced semiconductor chips.

44. EUV (Extreme Ultraviolet) lithography is primarily used for:

A. Producing solar energy
B. Manufacturing advanced semiconductor chips
C. Satellite communication
D. Nuclear fuel enrichment

Answer: B. Manufacturing advanced semiconductor chips

Explanation: EUV lithography uses extremely short-wavelength ultraviolet light to print extremely small circuit patterns on silicon wafers, enabling the production of high-performance semiconductor chips.

ASML is currently the only commercial manufacturer of Extreme Ultraviolet (EUV) lithography systems, making it a critical player in the global semiconductor supply chain.

45. Semiconductor chips are primarily manufactured on:

A. Copper sheets
B. Silicon wafers
C. Graphite plates
D. Aluminium foils

Answer: B. Silicon wafers

Explanation: Most semiconductor chips are fabricated on silicon wafers using advanced lithography techniques, including EUV lithography for next-generation processors.

46. Which Indian initiative aims to develop a domestic semiconductor manufacturing ecosystem?

A. Digital India Mission
B. India Semiconductor Mission (ISM)
C. Make in India 2.0
D. National Manufacturing Mission

Answer: B. India Semiconductor Mission (ISM)

Explanation: The India Semiconductor Mission (ISM) was launched to promote semiconductor fabrication, display manufacturing, chip design and a resilient semiconductor ecosystem in India.

47. Which technology is considered essential for manufacturing cutting-edge AI processors?

A. Offset printing
B. Extreme Ultraviolet (EUV) Lithography
C. Laser engraving
D. 3D Printing

Answer: B. Extreme Ultraviolet (EUV) Lithography

Explanation: Modern AI processors require billions of transistors packed into tiny chips. EUV lithography enables the fabrication of these highly advanced chips by creating extremely fine circuit patterns on silicon wafers.

48. The Bab-el-Mandeb Strait, recently in the news due to the Houthi blockade threat, connects:

A. Mediterranean Sea and Black Sea
B. Red Sea and Gulf of Aden
C. Persian Gulf and Gulf of Oman
D. Arabian Sea and Bay of Bengal

Answer: B. Red Sea and Gulf of Aden

Explanation: The Bab-el-Mandeb Strait is a strategic maritime chokepoint connecting the Red Sea with the Gulf of Aden, and ultimately the Arabian Sea. A significant portion of global trade and energy shipments passes through this route.

49. Andrew Burnham, recently appointed as the Prime Minister, is the Prime Minister of:

A. Canada
B. Australia
C. United Kingdom
D. New Zealand

Answer: C. United Kingdom

Explanation: Andrew Burnham assumed office as the Prime Minister of the United Kingdom, succeeding the previous government after the Labour Party’s electoral victory.

50. Judit Polgár, recently in the news, is internationally renowned in which field?

A. Tennis
B. Chess
C. Athletics
D. Mathematics

Answer: B. Chess

Explanation: Judit Polgár of Hungary is widely regarded as the greatest female chess player in history. She was the first woman to break into the top 10 of the FIDE world rankings and has defeated numerous world champions during her career.

51. Kyiv, recently in the news due to Russian attacks, is the capital of:

A. Belarus
B. Ukraine
C. Moldova
D. Poland

Answer: B. Ukraine

Explanation: Kyiv is the capital and largest city of Ukraine. It has remained a focal point during the Russia–Ukraine conflict.

52. Uganda, Tanzania and Kenya, recently in the news, are member countries of which regional organisation?

A. Southern African Development Community (SADC)
B. Economic Community of West African States (ECOWAS)
C. East African Community (EAC)
D. Arab League

Answer: C. East African Community (EAC)

Explanation: Kenya, Uganda and Tanzania are founding members of the East African Community (EAC), a regional intergovernmental organisation promoting economic, political and social integration in East Africa.

The East African Community (EAC) is headquartered in Arusha, Tanzania. It currently has eight partner states working towards regional integration.

The EAC includes Kenya, Uganda, Tanzania, Rwanda, Burundi, South Sudan, the Democratic Republic of the Congo, and Somalia. Ethiopia is not a member.

53. Which country won the 2026 FIFA World Cup?

A. Argentina
B. France
C. Spain
D. Brazil

Answer: C. Spain

Explanation: Spain won the 2026 FIFA World Cup, defeating Argentina 1–0 after extra time to claim its second FIFA World Cup title.

54. Who scored the winning goal for Spain in the 2026 FIFA World Cup final?

A. Lamine Yamal
B. Rodri
C. Ferran Torres
D. Álvaro Morata

Answer: C. Ferran Torres

Explanation: Ferran Torres came off the bench to score the decisive goal in extra time, securing Spain’s second FIFA World Cup title.

55. Lamine Yamal became the first teenager to achieve which of the following?

A. Win two UEFA Champions League titles
B. Win both the UEFA European Championship and the FIFA World Cup
C. Win the Ballon d’Or twice
D. Score in two FIFA World Cup finals

Answer: B. Win both the UEFA European Championship and the FIFA World Cup

Explanation: Lamine Yamal became the first teenager to win both the UEFA European Championship and the FIFA World Cup, marking a historic achievement in international football.

56. Who won the Golden Ball as the best player of the 2026 FIFA World Cup?

A. Lamine Yamal
B. Ferran Torres
C. Rodri
D. Lionel Messi

Answer: C. Rodri

Explanation: Spanish midfielder Rodri received the Golden Ball, awarded to the tournament’s best player for his outstanding performances.

57. The Golden Boot at the 2026 FIFA World Cup was awarded to:

A. Rodri
B. Ferran Torres
C. Lamine Yamal
D. Kylian Mbappé

Answer: C. Lamine Yamal

Explanation: Lamine Yamal won the Golden Boot as the tournament’s top scorer.

58. Which goalkeeper won the Golden Glove at the 2026 FIFA World Cup?

A. Emiliano Martínez
B. Unai Simón
C. Gianluigi Donnarumma
D. Mike Maignan

Answer: B. Unai Simón

Explanation: Spain’s Unai Simón was awarded the Golden Glove for being the best goalkeeper of the tournament.

59. Which player received the FIFA World Cup Young Player Award?

A. Lamine Yamal
B. Pau Cubarsí
C. Rodri
D. Ferran Torres

Answer: B. Pau Cubarsí

Explanation: Pau Cubarsí won the Young Player Award for his impressive performances throughout the tournament.

60. FIFA is the governing body of world football. Its headquarters are located in:

A. Paris, France
B. Zurich, Switzerland
C. Geneva, Switzerland
D. Lausanne, Switzerland

Answer: B. Zurich, Switzerland

Explanation: FIFA (Fédération Internationale de Football Association) is headquartered in Zurich, Switzerland, and is the global governing body for association football.

61. Which Indian team won the Ultimate Table Tennis (UTT) Juniors title?

A. Chennai Lions TT
B. Goa Challengers TT
C. U Mumba TT
D. Dabang Delhi TTC

Answer: C. U Mumba TT

Explanation: U Mumba TT won the Ultimate Table Tennis (UTT) Juniors Championship, defeating Dabang Delhi TTC in the final.

62. Arjun Erigaisi and D. Gukesh, recently in the news, are associated with which sport?

A. Shooting
B. Chess
C. Badminton
D. Table Tennis

Answer: B. Chess

Explanation: Arjun Erigaisi and D. Gukesh are among India’s leading chess Grandmasters and are regular participants in elite international tournaments.