1. Sonam Wangchuk ended his indefinite fast after receiving assurance from whom regarding discussion on NEET and paper leak issues?
A. Union Home Minister
B. Prime Minister Narendra Modi
C. President of India
D. Chief Justice of India
Answer: B. Prime Minister Narendra Modi
Explanation: Climate activist Sonam Wangchuk ended his indefinite fast after Prime Minister Narendra Modi assured that the Union Cabinet would discuss issues related to the NEET examination and the paper leak controversy. The development highlights the government’s response to concerns over transparency and integrity in public examinations.
2. Which ministry was allotted to senior IAS officer Vineet Joshi after his transfer?
A. Ministry of Education
B. Ministry of Panchayati Raj
C. Ministry of Rural Development
D. Ministry of Skill Development
Answer: B. Ministry of Panchayati Raj
Explanation: Senior IAS officer Vineet Joshi was transferred to the Ministry of Panchayati Raj. He had been serving as the Higher Education Secretary. Such appointments are important from the governance and administration perspective in UPSC and State PSC examinations.
3. The recent surge in Brent crude prices beyond $100 per barrel was primarily triggered by attacks on shipping in which region?
A. Strait of Malacca
B. Gulf of Aden and Red Sea
C. Strait of Gibraltar
D. Persian Gulf
Answer: B. Gulf of Aden and Red Sea
Explanation: Houthi attacks on commercial shipping in the Red Sea and Gulf of Aden disrupted global maritime trade, raising concerns over oil supplies. As a result, Brent crude crossed the $100 per barrel mark. The Red Sea route, connected through the Bab el-Mandeb Strait and Suez Canal, is one of the world’s most important energy trade corridors.
4. Which strategic maritime chokepoint has become the focal point of the Houthi attacks affecting global shipping?
A. Bosporus Strait
B. Strait of Hormuz
C. Bab el-Mandeb Strait
D. Bering Strait
Answer: C. Bab el-Mandeb Strait
Explanation: The Bab el-Mandeb Strait connects the Red Sea with the Gulf of Aden and the Arabian Sea. A significant share of global trade, including oil shipments, passes through this narrow waterway, making it strategically vital for international commerce.
5. The United States recently announced a civilian nuclear cooperation agreement with which country?
A. United Arab Emirates
B. Qatar
C. Saudi Arabia
D. Oman
Answer: C. Saudi Arabia
Explanation: The United States announced a civilian nuclear cooperation framework with Saudi Arabia. The agreement aims to support peaceful nuclear energy development while addressing issues related to nuclear non-proliferation and regional strategic stability.
6. More than nine lakh people were reported to be affected by severe floods in which State?
A. Bihar
B. Assam
C. Odisha
D. West Bengal
Answer: B. Assam
Explanation: Widespread flooding in Assam affected over nine lakh people across several districts. Floods in Assam are largely caused by the Brahmaputra and its tributaries during the southwest monsoon, making them a recurring topic in geography and disaster management.
7. The Supreme Court agreed to hear a petition challenging the disqualification of MLAs under which Schedule of the Constitution?
A. Fifth Schedule
B. Sixth Schedule
C. Tenth Schedule
D. Eleventh Schedule
Answer: C. Tenth Schedule
Explanation: The Tenth Schedule of the Constitution, added by the 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1985, contains the anti-defection law. It provides for the disqualification of legislators who voluntarily give up party membership or defy the party whip under specified circumstances.
The 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1985, introduced the Tenth Schedule to curb political defections. Later, the 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003, strengthened the law by removing protection for splits and allowing exemption only in cases of mergers.
Under the Tenth Schedule, the Speaker (or Chairman in the case of Legislative Councils) decides disqualification petitions. However, the Speaker’s decision is subject to judicial review, as held by the Supreme Court in Kihoto Hollohan v. Zachillhu (1992).
8. The endangered medicinal herb ‘Kutki’, recently in the news for sustainable cultivation in Himachal Pradesh, is scientifically known as:
A. Rauvolfia serpentina
B. Picrorhiza kurroa
C. Withania somnifera
D. Nardostachys jatamansi
Answer: B. Picrorhiza kurroa
Explanation: Kutki (Picrorhiza kurroa) is a high-altitude medicinal herb native to the Himalayas. It is valued in traditional medicine for treating liver disorders and digestive ailments. Due to overharvesting, it is considered an endangered species, making sustainable cultivation important for conservation.
9. Which international agreement regulates the international trade of endangered species such as Kutki?
A. Ramsar Convention
B. Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD)
C. Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species (CITES)
D. Bonn Convention
Answer: C. Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species (CITES)
Explanation: CITES regulates international trade in wild animals and plants to ensure that such trade does not threaten their survival. India is a Party to the Convention, and several endangered medicinal plants are covered under its provisions.
10. Recently, the West Bengal Government barred elected rural and municipal representatives from issuing which certificates?
A. Income Certificates
B. Caste Certificates
C. Birth and Death Certificates
D. Domicile Certificates
Answer: C. Birth and Death Certificates
Explanation: The West Bengal Government directed that Birth and Death Certificates would no longer be issued by elected representatives of Panchayats and Municipalities. The measure aims to improve transparency and reduce irregularities in the certification process.
11. The Sabarimala gold theft case is associated with which famous temple in India?
A. Guruvayur Temple
B. Padmanabhaswamy Temple
C. Sabarimala Sree Ayyappa Temple
D. Chottanikkara Temple
Answer: C. Sabarimala Sree Ayyappa Temple
Explanation: The Sabarimala gold theft case relates to the alleged theft of gold-plated panels from the Sabarimala Sree Ayyappa Temple in Kerala. The case is being investigated by the Special Investigation Team (SIT) constituted by the Kerala Police.
The Travancore Devaswom Board (TDB) administers several major temples in Kerala, including the Sabarimala Temple. It functions under the Travancore-Cochin Hindu Religious Institutions Act.
12. The Centre recently sought the return of ₹54.22 crore from Telangana under which flagship scheme?
A. PM POSHAN Scheme
B. MGNREGA
C. Jal Jeevan Mission (Rural)
D. PM-KUSUM
Answer: C. Jal Jeevan Mission (Rural)
Explanation: The Union Government sought the return of ₹54.22 crore from Telangana after an appraisal found that the amount remained unutilised under the Jal Jeevan Mission (Rural). The mission aims to provide Functional Household Tap Connections (FHTCs) to every rural household.
13. What is the primary objective of the Jal Jeevan Mission?
A. Universal urban drinking water supply
B. Irrigation for agricultural fields
C. Functional Household Tap Connection (FHTC) to every rural household
D. Groundwater recharge through check dams
Answer: C. Functional Household Tap Connection (FHTC) to every rural household
Explanation: Launched in 2019, the Jal Jeevan Mission aims to provide safe and adequate drinking water through Functional Household Tap Connections (FHTCs) to all rural households on a sustainable basis.
14. The Kerala Government recently launched a women-only ‘Pink Bus’ service primarily to promote:
A. Electric mobility only
B. Safe and convenient public transport for women
C. Tourism in Kerala
D. Rural transport connectivity
Answer: B. Safe and convenient public transport for women
Explanation: Kerala introduced the women-only Pink Bus service to enhance the safety and comfort of women commuters. The initiative is intended to encourage greater participation of women in public transport.
15. Pushkaram, recently in the news, is a religious festival associated with:
A. Mountains of the Himalayas
B. Sacred rivers of India
C. Coastal temples of South India
D. Desert pilgrimages
Answer: B. Sacred rivers of India
Explanation: Pushkaram is a Hindu festival celebrated once every 12 years for a particular river, based on the transit of Jupiter (Brihaspati) into a specific zodiac sign. Devotees take holy dips in the river during the festival.
16. Public Interest Litigation (PIL) in India was judicially recognized and expanded primarily through the efforts of which Supreme Court judge?
A. Justice M. Hidayatullah
B. Justice P.N. Bhagwati
C. Justice Ranjan Gogoi
D. Justice Dipak Misra
Answer: B. Justice P.N. Bhagwati
Explanation: Justice P.N. Bhagwati, along with Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer, played a pioneering role in developing the concept of Public Interest Litigation (PIL) in India by liberalizing the rules of locus standi and improving access to justice.
17. According to the Ministry of Minority Affairs, approximately how many Waqf properties have been approved on the UMEED portal?
A. 4.25 lakh
B. 5.12 lakh
C. 6.17 lakh
D. 7.85 lakh
Answer: C. 6.17 lakh
Explanation: The Ministry informed Parliament that over 6.17 lakh Waqf properties have been approved and uploaded on the UMEED portal, which aims to create a transparent digital database of Waqf properties across India.
The Unified Waqf Management, Empowerment, Efficiency and Development (UMEED) Portal is designed to digitize and maintain records of Waqf properties, improving transparency, governance, and dispute resolution.
18. Waqf in Islamic law refers to:
A. A tax collected by the State
B. A permanently dedicated property for religious or charitable purposes
C. A temporary government land grant
D. A community development fund
Answer: B. A permanently dedicated property for religious or charitable purposes
Explanation: A Waqf is a permanent endowment of movable or immovable property for religious, charitable, or pious purposes under Islamic law. Once declared as Waqf, the property generally cannot be transferred or sold except as permitted by law.
19. Which Constitutional provision provides for the readjustment of Lok Sabha seats after every Census?
A. Article 80
B. Article 81
C. Article 110
D. Article 243
Answer: B. Article 81
Explanation: Article 81 deals with the composition of the Lok Sabha and provides for the allocation and readjustment of seats among the States based on population, subject to constitutional amendments that have frozen delimitation until after the first Census conducted post-2026.
20. Which Constitutional Amendment froze the delimitation exercise based on population until the first Census after 2026?
A. 61st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1989
B. 84th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2001
C. 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003
D. 97th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2011
Answer: B. 84th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2001
Explanation: The 84th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2001 froze the readjustment of Lok Sabha and State Assembly seats until the first Census conducted after 2026, while allowing limited readjustment of constituency boundaries.
21. External Affairs Minister S. Jaishankar recently emphasized that global waterways should remain “safe and unimpeded” at which regional summit?
A. BIMSTEC Summit
B. ASEAN Summit
C. East Asia Summit
D. G20 Summit
Answer: C. East Asia Summit
Explanation: Speaking at the East Asia Summit (EAS) Foreign Ministers’ Meeting, External Affairs Minister S. Jaishankar stressed that international waterways must remain safe, secure, and unimpeded, highlighting the importance of freedom of navigation and uninterrupted maritime trade.
22. The principle of “Freedom of Navigation”, often mentioned in maritime disputes, is governed primarily by which international convention?
A. Geneva Convention, 1949
B. United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS), 1982
C. Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations, 1961
D. Antarctic Treaty, 1959
Answer: B. United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS), 1982
Explanation: UNCLOS, 1982 provides the legal framework governing maritime zones, navigation rights, and the use of oceans. It guarantees freedom of navigation on the high seas and regulates the rights and responsibilities of coastal and maritime states.
23. The Supreme Court recently allowed the Taj Trapezium Zone (TTZ) Authority to process MSME applications. The TTZ was created primarily to protect:
A. Qutub Minar
B. Fatehpur Sikri
C. Taj Mahal
D. Red Fort
Answer: C. Taj Mahal
Explanation: The Taj Trapezium Zone (TTZ) is an environmentally protected area covering around 10,400 sq km around the Taj Mahal. It was created to reduce air pollution and preserve the monument from environmental damage.
24. The Taj Trapezium Zone (TTZ) was established following directions of the Supreme Court in the landmark:
A. M.C. Mehta v. Union of India
B. Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan
C. Olga Tellis v. Bombay Municipal Corporation
D. S.R. Bommai v. Union of India
Answer: A. M.C. Mehta v. Union of India
Explanation: In the landmark M.C. Mehta v. Union of India case, the Supreme Court directed measures to control industrial pollution around the Taj Mahal, leading to the establishment of the Taj Trapezium Zone (TTZ).
25. The recent cloudburst and floods that affected over seven lakh people occurred in which State?
A. Himachal Pradesh
B. Assam
C. Uttarakhand
D. Sikkim
Answer: B. Assam
Explanation: Heavy monsoon rains and flooding affected more than 7 lakh people across several districts of Assam. The Brahmaputra and its tributaries frequently cause widespread flooding during the southwest monsoon.
26. Which country became NATO’s newest member in 2024?
A. Finland
B. Ukraine
C. Sweden
D. Georgia
Answer: C. Sweden
Explanation: Sweden officially became the 32nd member of NATO in 2024, ending its long-standing policy of military non-alignment. Finland had joined the alliance earlier in 2023.
27. The National Education Policy (NEP) was approved in which year?
A. 2018
B. 2019
C. 2020
D. 2022
Answer: C. 2020
Explanation: The National Education Policy (NEP), 2020 replaced the National Policy on Education, 1986. It aims to transform India’s education system by promoting multidisciplinary learning, flexibility, digital education, and improved quality of education.
28. The National Education Policy (NEP), 2020 recommends which school education structure?
A. 10+2
B. 5+3+3+4
C. 8+4
D. 6+3+3
Answer: B. 5+3+3+4
Explanation: NEP 2020 replaced the traditional 10+2 system with a 5+3+3+4 curricular structure corresponding to the developmental stages of children from ages 3 to 18 years.
29. The Right to Information (RTI) Act was enacted in which year?
A. 2002
B. 2005
C. 2008
D. 2010
Answer: B. 2005
Explanation: The Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005 empowers citizens to seek information from public authorities, promoting transparency and accountability in governance. It came into force on 12 October 2005.
30. Which constitutional right has been interpreted by the Supreme Court to include the Right to Information?
A. Article 14
B. Article 19(1)(a)
C. Article 21
D. Article 32
Answer: B. Article 19(1)(a)
Explanation: The Right to Information has been derived from Article 19(1)(a) (Freedom of Speech and Expression). The Supreme Court has held that citizens must have access to information to meaningfully exercise this fundamental right.
31. Which landmark Supreme Court judgment declared the Right to Privacy as a Fundamental Right under Article 21?
A. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
B. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
C. Justice K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2017)
D. Shreya Singhal v. Union of India
Answer: C. Justice K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2017)
Explanation: In Justice K.S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) v. Union of India (2017), a nine-judge Bench unanimously held that the Right to Privacy is a fundamental right protected under Article 21 and other fundamental rights.
32. The Prevention of Corruption Act, which is often in the news regarding anti-corruption cases, was originally enacted in:
A. 1947
B. 1988
C. 2002
D. 2013
Answer: B. 1988
Explanation: The Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 is India’s principal anti-corruption legislation dealing with offences committed by public servants. It was substantially amended in 2018 to strengthen anti-corruption provisions.
33. The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), and Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA) came into force on:
A. 26 January 2024
B. 1 April 2024
C. 1 July 2024
D. 15 August 2024
Answer: C. 1 July 2024
Explanation: India’s three new criminal laws—the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), and Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA)—came into force on 1 July 2024, replacing the IPC, CrPC, and Indian Evidence Act, respectively.
34. What is meant by On-device Artificial Intelligence (On-device AI)?
A. AI models that run only on cloud servers
B. AI models that process data directly on a device without relying entirely on cloud servers
C. AI used only in supercomputers
D. AI that works only through internet connectivity
Answer: B. AI models that process data directly on a device without relying entirely on cloud servers
Explanation: On-device AI refers to the execution of AI models directly on a smartphone, laptop, or other device. Since processing occurs locally, it offers lower latency, improved privacy, and the ability to function even without continuous internet connectivity.
35. The Union Government recently relaxed Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) rules for which sector?
A. Insurance
B. Defence Manufacturing
C. E-commerce
D. Telecommunications
Answer: C. E-commerce
Explanation: The Government relaxed FDI rules for e-commerce companies, allowing inventory-based e-commerce entities to hold up to 10% of inventory. The move aims to improve ease of doing business while maintaining safeguards for fair competition.
36. Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) in India is regulated under which legislation?
A. Companies Act, 2013
B. Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA), 1999
C. Foreign Trade (Development and Regulation) Act, 1992
D. Competition Act, 2002
Answer: B. Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA), 1999
Explanation: Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) in India is governed under the Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA), 1999, with the detailed sectoral policy issued by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) and operational regulations framed by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
36. Which body is responsible for formulating India’s Consolidated FDI Policy?
A. NITI Aayog
B. Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
C. Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT)
D. Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
Answer: C. Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT)
Explanation: The DPIIT, under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, formulates India’s FDI Policy, while the RBI regulates foreign investment transactions under FEMA.
37. The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) recently proposed changes to portfolio manager regulations. SEBI is a statutory body established in:
A. 1988
B. 1992
C. 1995
D. 2000
Answer: B. 1992
Explanation: The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) became a statutory body through the SEBI Act, 1992. It regulates the securities market, protects investors’ interests, and promotes the development of the capital market.
SEBI functions under the Ministry of Finance and regulates stock exchanges, listed companies, mutual funds, portfolio managers, and other participants in India’s securities market.
38. India’s Credit-Deposit (CD) Ratio, recently reported at a multi-decade high, refers to:
A. Ratio of bank capital to deposits
B. Ratio of loans advanced by banks to the deposits mobilized
C. Ratio of NPAs to total loans
D. Ratio of government borrowing to bank deposits
Answer: B. Ratio of loans advanced by banks to the deposits mobilized
Explanation: The Credit-Deposit (CD) Ratio measures the proportion of deposits mobilized by banks that has been lent as credit. A higher ratio indicates greater deployment of deposits into loans, but excessively high levels may create liquidity pressures.
39. India currently imports the majority of its solar photovoltaic (PV) cells from which country?
A. Japan
B. South Korea
C. China
D. Vietnam
Answer: C. China
Explanation: India currently depends heavily on China for solar photovoltaic (PV) cells, importing around 95% of its requirements. This dependence has become a major concern due to supply-chain disruptions and export restrictions.
40. Which mission aims to make India a global hub for solar energy deployment?
A. National Hydrogen Mission
B. National Solar Mission
C. PM Surya Ghar Yojana
D. National Biofuel Mission
Answer: B. National Solar Mission
Explanation: The National Solar Mission, launched in 2010 under the National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC), aims to promote solar power generation and reduce India’s dependence on fossil fuels.
The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) is the nodal ministry responsible for promoting renewable energy in India, including the implementation of the National Solar Mission.
41. Which of the following is the primary component used to manufacture most commercial solar photovoltaic (PV) cells?
A. Graphite
B. Silicon
C. Lithium
D. Copper
Answer: B. Silicon
Explanation: Silicon is the most widely used semiconductor material in commercial solar photovoltaic cells due to its efficiency, durability, and abundance.
42. The World Health Organization (WHO) recently reported over 1,000 deaths due to an Ebola outbreak in which two African countries?
A. Sudan and Ethiopia
B. Democratic Republic of the Congo (DRC) and Uganda
C. Kenya and Tanzania
D. Nigeria and Ghana
Answer: B. Democratic Republic of the Congo (DRC) and Uganda
Explanation: The World Health Organization (WHO) reported that the Ebola outbreak in the Democratic Republic of the Congo (DRC) and Uganda had resulted in over 1,000 deaths. Ebola Virus Disease (EVD) is a severe viral haemorrhagic fever with a high fatality rate and remains a major public health concern in Central Africa.
43. Ebola Virus Disease (EVD) is caused by a virus belonging to which family?
A. Coronaviridae
B. Filoviridae
C. Flaviviridae
D. Orthomyxoviridae
Answer: B. Filoviridae
Explanation: Ebola Virus Disease (EVD) is caused by viruses of the Filoviridae family. The disease spreads through direct contact with the blood or body fluids of infected persons or animals and has one of the highest case fatality rates among viral diseases.
44. The Scarborough Shoal, frequently seen in the news, is a disputed maritime feature in:
A. Baltic Sea
B. South China Sea
C. East China Sea
D. Black Sea
Answer: B. South China Sea
Explanation: Scarborough Shoal is a disputed atoll in the South China Sea, claimed by both China and the Philippines. The area is strategically significant because of its rich fishing grounds and proximity to major international shipping lanes.
45. The GBU-57/B Massive Ordnance Penetrator (MOP), recently in the news, is primarily designed to:
A. Destroy enemy aircraft in flight
B. Intercept ballistic missiles
C. Penetrate deeply buried and hardened underground targets
D. Neutralize naval mines
Answer: C. Penetrate deeply buried and hardened underground targets
Explanation: The GBU-57/B Massive Ordnance Penetrator (MOP) is a U.S.-developed precision-guided bunker-buster bomb designed to destroy deeply buried and fortified underground facilities. It is carried by the B-2 Spirit stealth bomber.
46. Which aircraft is currently the primary operational platform for deploying the GBU-57/B Massive Ordnance Penetrator (MOP)?
A. B-52 Stratofortress
B. F-35 Lightning II
C. B-2 Spirit
D. B-1B Lancer
Answer: C. B-2 Spirit
Explanation: The B-2 Spirit is the only operational aircraft capable of carrying and deploying the GBU-57/B Massive Ordnance Penetrator (MOP). Its stealth capability enables it to strike heavily defended underground military installations.
47. Indian boxer Lovlina Borgohain assured India’s first medal at the Glasgow Commonwealth Games in which sport?
A. Wrestling
B. Boxing
C. Weightlifting
D. Judo
Answer: B. Boxing
Explanation: Lovlina Borgohain, an Olympic bronze medallist, assured India’s first medal at the Glasgow Commonwealth Games after reaching the semifinals in the women’s boxing event. In boxing, all semifinalists are guaranteed at least a bronze medal.
48. The World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA) is headquartered in:
A. Lausanne, Switzerland
B. Montreal, Canada
C. Geneva, Switzerland
D. Paris, France
Answer: B. Montreal, Canada
Explanation: The World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA) was established in 1999 and is headquartered in Montreal, Canada. It develops and monitors the World Anti-Doping Code, which is implemented by National Anti-Doping Organizations such as NADA.
49. Richard Carapaz, recently in the news, is associated with which sport?
A. Athletics
B. Cycling
C. Triathlon
D. Rowing
Answer: B. Cycling
Explanation: Richard Carapaz is an Ecuadorian professional cyclist. He won Stage 18 of the Tour de France, one of the world’s most prestigious cycling events.
50. Which Indian shuttler recently won the men’s singles title at the Yonex Sunrise All India Senior Ranking Badminton Tournament?
A. Lakshya Sen
B. Priyanshu Rajawat
C. Dhruv Negi
D. Ayush Shetty
Answer: C. Dhruv Negi
Explanation: Dhruv Negi won the men’s singles title at the Yonex Sunrise All India Senior Ranking Badminton Tournament, marking an important achievement in domestic badminton.
51. The FIFA World Cup 2030 will be jointly hosted by which three countries?
A. Germany, France and Italy
B. Spain, Portugal and Morocco
C. England, Scotland and Wales
D. Brazil, Argentina and Uruguay
Answer: B. Spain, Portugal and Morocco
Explanation: The 2030 FIFA World Cup will be jointly hosted by Spain, Portugal, and Morocco, with commemorative opening matches also planned in Uruguay, Argentina, and Paraguay to mark the tournament’s centenary.
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