
WBPSC Clerkship Polity & Economy Questions 2023 1st Shift
Q. Which State adopted the Three-tier Panchayati Raj system for the first time?
(A) Rajasthan
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Bihar
(D) Karnataka
Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: (A) Rajasthan
Rajasthan was the first state to adopt the three-tier Panchayati Raj system, which Jawaharlal Nehru inaugurated in Nagaur district on 2 October 1959. Andhra Pradesh followed later in 1959.
Exam Facts
- The three-tier structure (Gram Panchayat, Panchayat Samiti, Zila Parishad) was recommended by the Balwant Rai Mehta Committee (1957).
- Andhra Pradesh (option B) was the second state to adopt it, on 1 November 1959.
- The Ashok Mehta Committee (1977) recommended a two-tier system.
- The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 gave panchayats constitutional status from 24 April 1993.
- 24 April is observed as National Panchayati Raj Day.
- Article 40 (a DPSP) directs the State to organise village panchayats.
- Bihar (option C) was the first state to reserve 50% of panchayat seats for women (2006).
- Karnataka (option D) is known for its 1987 Mandal Panchayat reforms under minister Abdul Nazir Sab.
- The G.V.K. Rao Committee (1985) and L.M. Singhvi Committee (1986) also reviewed panchayati raj.
- Panchayats are covered in Part IX (Articles 243 to 243-O) and the Eleventh Schedule (29 subjects).


Q. Which of the following Amendments allows a constitutional status to the Panchayat Raj system?
(A) 71st Amendment
(B) 72nd Amendment
(C) 73rd Amendment
(D) 74th Amendment
Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: (C) 73rd Amendment
The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 gave constitutional status to Panchayati Raj institutions. It came into force on 24 April 1993 and added Part IX (Articles 243 to 243-O) and the Eleventh Schedule (29 subjects).
Exam Facts
- It provides a three-tier system (village, intermediate and district) for states with a population over 20 lakh.
- It reserves at least one-third of seats for women (Article 243D), plus seats for SCs and STs in proportion to population.
- Panchayats have a fixed five-year term, and elections are held by the State Election Commission (Article 243K).
- A State Finance Commission is set up every five years (Article 243I).
- The 74th Amendment (option D, 1992) covers urban local bodies (municipalities): Part IX-A, the Twelfth Schedule (18 subjects), in force from 1 June 1993.
- The 71st Amendment (option A, 1992) added Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali to the Eighth Schedule.
- The 72nd Amendment (option B, 1992) provided for reservation of seats for STs in the Tripura Legislative Assembly.
- Both the 73rd and 74th Amendments were passed under the P.V. Narasimha Rao government.
- Rajiv Gandhi’s 64th Amendment Bill (1989) on panchayats failed in the Rajya Sabha.
- 24 April is celebrated as National Panchayati Raj Day.
Q. How many Fundamental Duties are mentioned in the Indian Constitution?
(A) Five
(B) Seven
(C) Nine
(D) Eleven
Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: (D) Eleven
There are 11 Fundamental Duties in Article 51A of Part IVA. The first 10 were added by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 on the advice of the Swaran Singh Committee, and the 11th was added by the 86th Amendment Act, 2002.
Exam Facts
- The 11th duty says a parent or guardian must give their child aged 6-14 years the opportunity for education.
- The idea was borrowed from the USSR (former Soviet Union) constitution.
- Duties include respecting the Constitution, National Flag and Anthem, and protecting the environment.
- Fundamental Duties are non-justiciable, so courts cannot enforce them directly.
- The Swaran Singh Committee had recommended 8 duties; the 42nd Amendment added 10.
- Article 51A(g) asks citizens to protect the natural environment, including forests, lakes, rivers and wildlife.
- Five (option A) and seven (option B) match no stage of the list.
- Nine (option C) is also wrong; the original 1976 list had 10 duties.
- The Verma Committee (1999) looked at how to put the Fundamental Duties into practice.
- Part IVA has only one article, Article 51A.
Q. Which of the following best describes a ‘bear market’?
(A) A market in which prices are rising
(B) A market in which prices are falling
(C) A market with stagnant prices
(D) A market with high trading volumes
Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: (B) A market in which prices are falling
A bear market is a prolonged period of falling prices, usually a decline of 20% or more from recent highs in a stock index, driven by pessimism. The opposite, with rising prices, is a bull market.
Exam Facts
- The name comes from a bear swiping its paws downward, while a bull thrusts its horns upward.
- A bull market (option A) is one where prices are rising.
- A market with stagnant prices (option C) is called a sideways or range-bound market.
- High trading volume (option D) can occur in both rising and falling markets, so it does not define a bear market.
- A fall of about 10% from the peak is called a correction. A fall of 20% or more is a bear market.
- India’s main indices are the BSE Sensex (30 stocks, base year 1978-79 = 100) and the NSE Nifty 50 (50 stocks).
- India’s securities market regulator is SEBI, which got statutory status in 1992.
- A bear investor expects prices to fall and may short-sell. A bull buys expecting prices to rise.
- Dalal Street in Mumbai, home of the BSE, is a byword for the Indian stock market.
- The BSE (founded 1875) is Asia’s oldest stock exchange.
Q. The concept of ‘Gig Economy’ is characterized by
(A) Full-time employment with benefits.
(B) Short-term contracts or freelance work.
(C) Government jobs.
(D) Traditional economy.
Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: (B) Short-term contracts or freelance work.
The gig economy is a labour market of short-term contracts, freelance and task-based work, often arranged through digital platforms, rather than permanent jobs. Examples include delivery partners at Zomato/Swiggy, cab drivers at Uber/Ola and online freelancers.
Exam Facts
- The NITI Aayog report India’s Booming Gig and Platform Economy (June 2022) estimated 77 lakh gig workers in 2020-21, projected to reach 2.35 crore by 2029-30.
- The Code on Social Security, 2020 was the first Indian law to define gig workers and platform workers.
- Rajasthan passed the first state law for them, the Rajasthan Platform Based Gig Workers (Registration and Welfare) Act, 2023 (July 2023).
- After the exam, Union Budget 2025-26 (1 February 2025) announced e-Shram registration, ID cards and PM-JAY health cover for platform workers. Karnataka also passed a gig workers’ welfare law in 2025.
- Full-time employment with benefits (option A) describes the formal or organised sector, which is the opposite of gig work.
- Government jobs (option C) are permanent, salaried public-sector employment.
- Traditional economy (option D) is an economic system based on customs, barter and subsistence, not a labour model.
- The word “gig” comes from musicians’ slang for a one-off performance.
- Key features: flexibility, pay per task, and usually no social security, paid leave or pension.
- Gig workers are treated as independent contractors, not employees, which is the main policy debate.
Q. Goods and Service Tax council (GST) of India is headed by
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Finance Minister
(C) Finance Secretary
(D) Speaker of Lok Sabha
Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: (B) Finance Minister
The GST Council is a constitutional body under Article 279A, added by the 101st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2016, and the Union Finance Minister is its Chairperson. In 2023-24 this was Nirmala Sitharaman.
Exam Facts
- Members: Union FM (Chair), the Union Minister of State for Finance, and the Finance Ministers (or nominated ministers) of all States and UTs with legislatures.
- The Union Revenue Secretary is the ex-officio Secretary of the Council, so the Finance Secretary (option C) does not head it.
- Decisions need a three-fourths majority of weighted votes: the Centre has 1/3 weight and the States together have 2/3.
- GST came into force on 1 July 2017; the first Council meeting was held in September 2016.
- The Prime Minister (option A) chairs bodies such as NITI Aayog, not the GST Council.
- The Speaker of Lok Sabha (option D) presides over the Lower House and has no role in the GST Council.
- GST components: CGST, SGST/UTGST and IGST (for inter-state supply).
- Assam was the first state to ratify the GST amendment bill.
- Core rate slabs were 5%, 12%, 18% and 28% until September 2025, when they were rationalised mainly to 5% and 18%, with a 40% rate for sin and luxury goods.
- GSTN (GST Network) provides the IT backbone for GST.
WBPSC Clerkship Polity & Economy Questions 2023 2nd Shift
Q. The 73rd Amendment of the Constitution of India is related to which among the following?
(A) Townships
(B) Panchayats
(C) Municipalities
(D) District Boards
Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: (B) Panchayats
The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 relates to Panchayats (rural local self-government). It came into force on 24 April 1993, added Part IX (Articles 243 to 243-O) and the Eleventh Schedule with 29 subjects.
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Q. The ‘Blue Economy’ concept is primarily related to
(A) Agriculture
(B) Ocean resources
(C) Sky-based industries
(D) Digital technology
Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: (B) Ocean resources
The Blue Economy means the sustainable use of ocean resources for economic growth, better livelihoods and jobs while keeping the ocean ecosystem healthy (World Bank definition). It covers fisheries, shipping and ports, coastal tourism, offshore energy, deep-sea minerals and marine biotechnology.
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Q. ‘Operation Flood’ is also popularly known as
(A) The Green Revolution
(B) The White Revolution
(C) The Blue Revolution
(D) The Yellow Revolution
Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: (B) The White Revolution
Operation Flood is popularly known as the White Revolution. Launched in 1970 by the National Dairy Development Board (NDDB) under Dr. Verghese Kurien, it created a national milk grid linking rural producers with urban consumers and made India a leading milk producer.
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WBPSC Clerkship Polity & Economy Questions 2023 3rd Shift
Q. Attorney General for India is appointed by
(A) The President
(B) The Prime Minister
(C) The Chief Minister
(D) both Houses of Parliament
Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: (A) The President
Under Article 76 of the Constitution, the Attorney General for India is appointed by the President. The person must be qualified to be appointed a Judge of the Supreme Court and holds office during the pleasure of the President.
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Q. According to the Indian Constitution, who has the power to declare an Emergency?
(A) Prime Minister
(B) President
(C) Chief Justice
(D) Parliament
Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: (B) President
Under Part XVIII (Articles 352-360) of the Constitution, only the President can proclaim an Emergency: a National Emergency (Article 352), President’s Rule (Article 356) or a Financial Emergency (Article 360).
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Q. In which year Sikkim became a full-fledged state of India?
(A) 1947
(B) 1965
(C) 1975
(D) 1985
Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: (C) 1975
Sikkim became the 22nd State of India on 16 May 1975 through the 36th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1975. This followed a referendum in April 1975 in which the people voted to abolish the Chogyal monarchy and join India.
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WBPSC Clerkship Polity & Economy Questions 2023 4th Shift
Q. Under which Article of the Constitution is the President’s rule promulgated in any state in India?
(A) 326
(B) 370
(C) 352
(D) 356
Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: (D) 356
President’s Rule (State Emergency) is imposed under Article 356 when the President is satisfied, on the Governor’s report or otherwise, that the government of a state cannot be carried on according to the Constitution. So (D) 356 is correct.
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WBPSC Clerkship Polity & Economy Questions 2019 1st Shift
Q. How many seats are there in Lok Sabha?
(A) 540
(B) 543
(C) 545
(D) 550
Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: (C) 545
The standard textbook answer is 545: 543 elected members plus 2 Anglo-Indian members nominated by the President under Article 331. The question is dated, because the 104th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2019 ended Anglo-Indian nomination from 25 January 2020, the very day of this exam, and none were nominated to the 17th Lok Sabha, so the effective strength is now 543; the key accepts (C).
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Q. Before becoming the president of India Pranab Mukherjee never held the post of
(A) Defence Minister
(B) Finance Minister
(C) Minister for Railways
(D) Minister for External Affairs
Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: (C) Minister for Railways
Pranab Mukherjee was Defence, Finance and External Affairs Minister at different times, but never Minister for Railways. He was India’s 13th President (2012-2017).
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Q. Which one of the following is not a Union Territory?
(A) Chandigarh
(B) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
(C) Puducherry
(D) Tripura
Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: (D) Tripura
Tripura is a full-fledged state, not a Union Territory; it became a state on 21 January 1972 under the North-Eastern Areas (Reorganisation) Act, 1971. Chandigarh, Andaman and Nicobar Islands and Puducherry are Union Territories.
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WBPSC Clerkship Polity & Economy Questions 2019 2nd Shift
Q. The Governor of an Indian State is appointed by
(A) Prime Minister of India
(B) Home Minister
(C) President of India
(D) The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: (C) President of India
Under Article 155 of the Constitution, the Governor of a State is appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal. In practice the President acts on the advice of the Union Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister, but the formal appointing authority is the President of India.
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WBPSC Clerkship Polity & Economy Questions 2009 1st Shift
Q. Who presides over the Rajya Sabha?
(A) President
(B) Vice-President
(C) Prime Minister
(D) Speaker
Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: (B) Vice-President
Under Article 64 of the Constitution, the Vice-President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha and presides over its sittings. In 2009 the Vice-President and Rajya Sabha Chairman was Mohammad Hamid Ansari (2007-2017).
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WBPSC Clerkship Polity & Economy Questions 2009 2nd Shift
Q. ‘Green Bench’ refers to —
(A) the colour of the judges’ bench
(B) the bench of the country
(C) the bench of ministers
(D) the bench that checks the felling of forests
Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: (D) the bench that checks the felling of forests
A “Green Bench” is a special bench of the Supreme Court or a High Court that hears environmental and forest cases, such as illegal felling of forests, mining in forest land and pollution. The Supreme Court’s forest bench grew out of the T. N. Godavarman Thirumulpad v. Union of India case, in which a landmark order of 12 December 1996 halted unlicensed felling across India’s forests.
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WBPSC Clerkship Polity & Economy Questions 2007 1st Shift
Q. According to Economic Survey of 2007-08, India’s largest trade partner is :
(A) USA
(B) Russia
(C) China
(D) Great Britain
Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: (C) China
The Economic Survey 2007-08 reported that China’s share of India’s trade during April-October 2007 was higher than that of the USA by about Rs. 600 crore, making China India’s largest trading partner. This replaced the long-standing position of the USA.
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