
WBP SI Prelims Polity & Economy Questions 2021
Q. The tenure of each Member of Legislative Council is
(A) 3 years
(B) 6 years
(C) 5 years
(D) 2 years
Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: (B) 6 years
Explanation
A Member of the Legislative Council (MLC) is elected for a term of 6 years. The Vidhan Parishad is a permanent house that is never dissolved, and one-third of its members retire every second year.
Exam Facts
- The Legislative Council is the upper house of a state legislature, in the states that have one (Article 169).
- Parliament can create or abolish a council if the state assembly passes a special-majority resolution.
- The strength of a council cannot exceed one-third of the assembly and cannot be less than 40 (Article 171).
- A person must be at least 30 years old to become an MLC, while an MLA needs to be 25.
- As in the Rajya Sabha, the term of 6 years with a third retiring every two years applies to the Council.
- Option (C) 5 years is the term of the Lok Sabha and the Legislative Assembly.
- Options (A) 3 years and (D) 2 years are not terms of any house; 2 years is the interval of retirement.
- In 2021 only six states had a Legislative Council: Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Maharashtra and Karnataka.
- West Bengal’s council was abolished in 1969, and the state assembly passed a resolution to recreate it in 2021, which needs Parliament’s approval.
- The Chairman of the council is elected by its members, and the Governor nominates some members.
Q. Who is the highest Law Officer in any state of India?
(A) Advocate General
(B) Solicitor General
(C) Secretary General, Law Department
(D) Attorney General
Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: (A) Advocate General
Explanation
The Advocate General is the highest law officer of a state (Article 165); he is appointed by the Governor and gives legal advice to the state government.
Exam Facts
- The Advocate General must be a person qualified to be a judge of a High Court.
- He holds office during the pleasure of the Governor and gets the remuneration decided by the Governor.
- He has the right to speak and take part in the proceedings of the state legislature, but cannot vote (Article 177).
- The Attorney General of India (option D) is the highest law officer of the Union (Article 76) and is appointed by the President.
- The Solicitor General (option B) is the second law officer of India, who helps the Attorney General; it is not a constitutional post.
- The Secretary, Law Department (option C) is an administrative officer of the state government.
- The Attorney General can speak in Parliament but cannot vote.
- A Public Prosecutor represents the state in criminal cases.
- The Governor is the constitutional head of a state, appointed by the President under Article 155.
- Under Article 76, the Attorney General must also be a person qualified to be a Supreme Court judge.
Q. The concept of Welfare State is included in the Constitution of India in the
(A) Preamble
(B) Fourth Schedule
(C) Directive Principles of State Policy
(D) Fundamental Rights
Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: (C) Directive Principles of State Policy
Explanation
The idea of a welfare state is mainly found in the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) in Part IV (Articles 36–51), which ask the State to secure social and economic justice and the well-being of the people.
Exam Facts
- The DPSP were borrowed from the Irish Constitution.
- They are non-justiciable: courts cannot enforce them (Article 37), but they are fundamental in the governance of the country.
- Granville Austin called the Directive Principles and Fundamental Rights the ‘conscience of the Constitution’.
- Article 39 deals with equal pay, adequate livelihood and the right of men and women, and Article 43 with the living wage.
- Article 45 (as changed by the 86th Amendment, 2002) deals with early childhood care and education.
- Option (A) Preamble states the ideals of justice, liberty, equality and fraternity and the words socialist and secular were added by the 42nd Amendment (1976).
- Option (B) Fourth Schedule only lists the allocation of Rajya Sabha seats among the states and union territories.
- Option (D) Fundamental Rights (Part III, Articles 12–35) are justiciable rights of the individual against the State.
- The Fundamental Duties (Article 51A) were added by the 42nd Amendment.
- The Constitution of India came into force on 26 January 1950.
Q. Which industry is known as ‘Sunrise Industry’?
(A) Petrochemical Industry
(B) Transport Industry
(C) Construction Industry
(D) Computer Industry
Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: (D) Computer Industry
Explanation
A sunrise industry is a new and fast-growing industry with high future potential, such as the computer (information technology), electronics, telecom and biotechnology industries.
Exam Facts
- The computer/IT industry has grown rapidly in India since the 1990s, with Bengaluru called the ‘Silicon Valley of India’.
- Sunset industries are those in decline, such as typewriters and film cameras.
- NASSCOM (National Association of Software and Service Companies) was founded in 1988.
- Software Technology Parks of India (STPI) was set up in 1991.
- The Information Technology Act was passed in 2000.
- Option (A) Petrochemical industry is an established, mature industry based on petroleum.
- Option (B) Transport and option (C) Construction are traditional and long-established industries.
- The Digital India programme was launched in 2015.
- Other sunrise sectors are renewable energy, electric vehicles, artificial intelligence and e-commerce.
- The tertiary (service) sector has the largest share in India’s GDP.
WBP SI Prelims Polity & Economy Questions 2019
Q. President of India is elected by
(A) Rajya Sabha
(B) Members of Parliament and members of State Legislative Assemblies
(C) Lok Sabha
(D) Parliament Members
Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: (B) Members of Parliament and members of State Legislative Assemblies
Explanation
Under Article 54, the President is elected by an Electoral College made up of the elected members of both Houses of Parliament and the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States (including Delhi and Puducherry).
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Q. The maximum duration of ‘Zero-Hour’ in the Lok Sabha is
(A) 60 minutes
(B) Indefinite period
(C) 30 minutes
(D) 2 hours
Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: (B) Indefinite period
Explanation
Zero Hour is an informal device that begins right after Question Hour (about 12 noon) and continues until the regular business of the day begins. It has no fixed limit, so its duration is indefinite. Some books quote 30 or 60 minutes, so the question is open to dispute, but the strict answer is (B) Indefinite period.
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Q. What should be the student-teacher ratio at the upper primary level in schools under the Right to Education (RTE) Act ?
(A) 25 : 1
(B) 45 : 1
(C) 15 : 1
(D) 35 : 1
Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: (D) 35 : 1
Explanation
Under the Schedule of the RTE Act 2009, the pupil-teacher ratio for the upper primary level (classes VI-VIII) is 35 : 1.
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Q. India gets the largest share of its G.D.P. from which of the following sectors ?
(A) Construction sector
(B) Service sector
(C) Agriculture sector
(D) Manufacturing sector
Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: (B) Service sector
Explanation
The service (tertiary) sector contributes the largest share of India’s GDP, over half (about 55%), followed by industry and then agriculture.
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Q. Which of the following is India’s largest Public Sector Commercial Bank at present?
(A) IDBI Bank
(B) State Bank of India
(C) ICICI Bank
(D) Indian Bank
Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: (B) State Bank of India
Explanation
The State Bank of India (SBI) is India’s largest public sector commercial bank by assets, deposits and branches. It became even bigger after merging its five associate banks and Bharatiya Mahila Bank on 1 April 2017.
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Q. The Income Tax in India is
(A) Indirect and Progressive
(B) Indirect and Proportional
(C) Direct and Proportional
(D) Direct and Progressive
Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: (D) Direct and Progressive
Explanation
Income tax is a direct tax, because the person on whom it is levied also bears it, and it is progressive, because the rate rises as income rises (higher slabs pay higher rates).
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Q. The Stock Market Index of London Stock Exchange is referred as
(A) Brent
(B) Sensex
(C) Footsie (FTSE)
(D) NIFTY
Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: (C) Footsie (FTSE)
Explanation
The index of the London Stock Exchange is the FTSE 100, popularly called “Footsie”. FTSE stands for Financial Times Stock Exchange.
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Q. Which of the following is not the function of Reserve Bank of India (RBI) ?
(A) Banker to Government
(B) Issue of Bank Notes
(C) A Bank Mobilizing Deposits
(D) Custodian of Cash Reserves of Commercial Banks
Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: (C) A Bank Mobilizing Deposits
Explanation
The RBI does not accept deposits from the public or mobilise deposits like a commercial bank; it is the central bank, the banker to the government and to other banks. So option (C) is not its function.
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WBP SI Prelims Polity & Economy Questions 2018
Q. In case a President of India dies while in office, the Vice President can act as President for a period of :-
(A) 6 months
(B) 3 months
(C) 1 year
(D) 2 years
Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: (A) 6 months
Explanation
When the President’s office falls vacant by death, resignation or removal, the Vice-President acts as President (Article 65) until a new President is elected. The new President must be elected within six months of the vacancy (Article 62(2)), so the Vice-President can act for a maximum of 6 months.
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Q. Which of the following Amendments amended the Preamble of Indian Constitution?
(A) 56th Amendment
(B) 42nd Amendment
(C) 44th Amendment
(D) It has never been amended.
Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: (B) 42nd Amendment
Explanation
The Preamble has been amended only once, by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976, which added the words “Socialist”, “Secular” and “Integrity” (in “unity and integrity of the Nation”).
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Q. The oldest High Court in India is the :-
(A) Calcutta High Court
(B) Bombay High Court
(C) Allahabad High Court
(D) Madras High Court
Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: (A) Calcutta High Court
Explanation
The Calcutta High Court is the oldest High Court in India, established in July 1862 under the Indian High Courts Act, 1861. Bombay and Madras High Courts followed in August 1862.
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Q. Under which Article can the Indian Constitution be amended?
(A) Article-360
(B) Article-362
(C) Article-368
(D) Article-370
Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: (C) Article-368
Explanation
Article 368 (Part XX) gives Parliament the power to amend the Constitution and lays down the procedure for it.
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Q. In India, which State was first reorganized on the basis of language?
(A) Tamil Nadu
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Karnataka
(D) West Bengal
Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: (B) Andhra Pradesh
Explanation
Andhra State (now Andhra Pradesh) was the first state created on a linguistic basis, formed on 1 October 1953 out of the Telugu-speaking areas of Madras State, after the death of Potti Sriramulu on 15 December 1952 following a fast.
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Q. NABARD is associated with :-
(A) Rural development
(B) Urban development
(C) Industrial development
(D) Development of railways
Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: (A) Rural development
Explanation
NABARD (National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development) is the apex development bank for agriculture and rural development. It provides refinance to banks and finances rural credit, small industries and rural infrastructure.
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Q. Which of the following Notes of India is printed by the Government of India?
(A) Rs. 100
(B) Rs. 500
(C) Rs. 2000
(D) Re. 1
Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: (D) Re. 1
Explanation
The one-rupee note (and all coins) is issued by the Government of India (Ministry of Finance) and signed by the Finance Secretary. All other notes, from Rs 2 upwards, are issued by the Reserve Bank of India and signed by the RBI Governor.
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